1. Answer B is correct. Barbiturates create a sedative effect. When the client stops taking barbiturates, he will experience tachycardia, diarrhea, and tachpnea. Answer A is incorrect even though depression and suicidal ideation go along with barbiturate use; it is not the priority. Muscle cramps and abdominal pain are vague symptoms that could be associated with other problems. Tachycardia is associated with stopping barbiturates, but euphoria is not.
2. Answer A is correct. If the fetal heart tones are heard in the right upper abdomen, the infant is in a breech presentation. If the infant is positioned in the right occipital anterior presentation, the FHTs will be located in the right lower quadrant, so answer B is incorrect. If the fetus is in the sacral position, the FHTs will be located in the center of the abdomen, so answer C is incorrect. If the FHTs are heard in the left lower abdomen, the infant is most likely in the left occipital transverse position, making answer D incorrect.
3. Answer D is correct. Asthma is the presence of bronchiolar spasms. This spasm can be brought on by allergies or anxiety. Answer A is incorrect because the primary physiological alteration is not inflammation. Answer B is incorrect because there is the production of abnormally viscous mucus, not a primary alteration. Answer C is incorrect because infection is not primary to asthma.
4. Answer A is correct. The client with mania is seldom sitting long enough to eat and burns many calories for energy. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be treated the same as other clients. Small meals are not a correct option for this client. Allowing her into the kitchen gives her privileges that other clients do not have and should not be allowed, so answer D is incorrect.
5. Answer B is correct. Bryant’s traction is used for fractured femurs and dislocated hips. The hips should be elevated 15° off the bed. Answer A is incorrect because the hips should not be resting on the bed. Answer C is incorrect because the hips should not be above the level of the body. Answer D is incorrect because the hips and legs should not be flat on the bed.
6. Answer B is correct. Herpes zoster is shingles. Clients with shingles should be placed in contact precautions. Wearing gloves during care will prevent transmission of the virus. Covering the lesions with a sterile gauze is not necessary, antibiotics are not prescribed for herpes zoster, and oxygen is not necessary for shingles; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
7. Answer B is correct. A trough level should be drawn 30 minutes before the third or fourth dose. The times in answers A, C, and D are incorrect times to draw blood levels.
8. Answer B is correct. The client using a diaphragm should keep the diaphragm in a cool location. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. She should refrain from leaving the diaphragm in longer than 8 hours, not 4 hours. She should have the diaphragm resized when she gains or loses 10 pounds or has abdominal surgery.
9. Answer C is correct. Mothers who plan to breastfeed should drink plenty of liquids, and four glasses is not enough in a 24-hour period. Wearing a support bra is a good practice for the mother who is breastfeeding as well as the mother who plans to bottle-feed, so answer A is incorrect. Expressing milk from the breast will stimulate milk production, making answer B incorrect. Allowing the water to run over the breast will also facilitate "letdown," when the milk begins to be produced; thus, answer D is incorrect.
10. Answer A is correct. The facial nerve is cranial nerve VII. If damage occurs, the client will experience facial pain. The auditory nerve is responsible for hearing loss and tinnitus, eye movement is controlled by the Trochear or C IV, and the olfactory nerve controls smell; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
11. Answer B is correct. Clients taking Pyridium should be taught that the medication will turn the urine orange or red. It is not associated with diarrhea, mental confusion, or changes in taste; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect. Pyridium can also cause a yellowish color to skin and sclera if taken in large doses.
12. Answer B is correct. Accutane is contraindicated for use by pregnant clients because it causes teratogenic effects. Calcium levels, apical pulse, and creatinine levels are not necessary; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
13. Answer D is correct. Clients taking Acyclovir should be encouraged to drink plenty of fluids because renal impairment can occur. Limiting activity is not necessary, nor is eating a high-carbohydrate diet. Use of an incentive spirometer is not specific to clients taking Acyclovir; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
14. Answer A is correct. Clients who are pregnant should not have an MRI because radioactive isotopes are used. However, clients with a titanium hip replacement can have an MRI, so answer B is incorrect. No antibiotics are used with this test and the client should remain still only when instructed, so answers C and D are not specific to this test.
15. Answer D is correct. Clients taking Amphotericin B should be monitored for liver, renal, and bone marrow function because this drug is toxic to the kidneys and liver, and causes bone marrow suppression. Jaundice is a sign of liver toxicity and is not specific to the use of Amphotericin B. Changes in vision are not related, and nausea is a side effect, not a sign of toxicity; nor is urinary frequency. Thus, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
16. Answer C is correct. The client with chest pain should be seen first because this could indicate a myocardial infarction. The client in answer A has a blood glucose within normal limits. The client in answer B is maintained on blood pressure medication. The client in answer D is in no distress.
17. Answer B is correct. Pancreatic enzymes should be given with meals for optimal effects. These enzymes assist the body in digesting needed nutrients. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect methods of administering pancreatic enzymes.
18. Answer C is correct. The lens allows light to pass through the pupil and focus light on the retina. The lens does not stimulate the retina, assist with eye movement, or magnify small objects, so answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
19. Answer C is correct. Miotic eyedrops constrict the pupil and allow aqueous humor to drain out of the Canal of Schlemm. They do not anesthetize the cornea, dilate the pupil, or paralyze the muscles of the eye, making answers A, B, and D incorrect.
20. Answer A is correct. When using eyedrops, allow 5 minutes between the two medications; therefore, answer B is incorrect. These medications can be used by the same client but it is not necessary to use a cyclopegic with these medications, making answers C and D incorrect.
21. Answer B is correct. Clients with color blindness will most likely have problems distinguishing violets, blues, and green. The colors in answers A, C, and D are less commonly affected.
22. Answer D is correct. The client with a pacemaker should be taught to count and record his pulse rate. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Ankle edema is a sign of right-sided congestive heart failure. Although this is not normal, it is often present in clients with heart disease. If the edema is present in the hands and face, it should be reported. Checking the blood pressure daily is not necessary for these clients. The client with a pacemaker can use a microwave oven, but he should stand about 5 feet from the oven while it is operating.
23. Answer A is correct. Clients who are being retrained for bladder control should be taught to withhold fluids after about 7 p.m., or 1 The times in answers B, C, and D are too early in the day.
24. Answer D is correct. Cranberry juice is more alkaline and, when metabolized by the body, is excreted with acidic urine. Bacteria does not grow freely in acidic urine. Increasing intake of meats is not associated with urinary tract infections, so answer A is incorrect. The client does not have to avoid citrus fruits and pericare should be done, but hydrogen peroxide is drying, so answers B and C are incorrect.
25. Answer C is correct.
NPH insulin peaks in 8–12 hours, so a snack should be offered at that
time. NPH insulin onsets in 90–120 minutes, so answer A is incorrect.
Answer B is untrue because NPH insulin is time released and does not
usually cause sudden hypoglycemia. Answer D is incorrect, but the client
should eat a bedtime snack.