1. Answer: (A) Inevitable
Rationale: An inevitable abortion is termination of pregnancy that cannot be prevented. Moderate to severe bleeding with mild cramping and cervical dilation would be noted in this type of abortion.
2. Answer: (B) History of syphilis
Rationale: Maternal infections such as syphilis, toxoplasmosis, and rubella are causes of spontaneous abortion.
3. Answer: (C) Monitoring apical pulse
Rationale: Nursing care for the client with a possible ectopic pregnancy is focused on preventing or identifying hypovolemic shock and controlling pain. An elevated pulse rate is an indicator of shock.
4. Answer: (B) Increased caloric intake
Rationale: Glucose crosses the placenta, but insulin does not. High fetal demands for glucose, combined with the insulin resistance caused by hormonal changes in the last half of pregnancy can result in elevation of maternal blood glucose levels. This increases the mother’s demand for insulin and is referred to as the diabetogenic effect of pregnancy.
5. Answer: (A) Excessive fetal activity.
Rationale: The most common signs and symptoms of hydatidiform mole includes elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin, vaginal bleeding, larger than normal uterus for gestational age, failure to detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive instruments, excessive nausea and vomiting, and early development of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Fetal activity would not be noted.
6. Answer: (B) Absent patellar reflexes
Rationale: Absence of patellar reflexes is an indicator of hypermagnesemia, which requires administration of calcium gluconate.
7. Answer: (C) Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
Rationale: Fetus at station plus two indicates that the presenting part is 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
8. Answer: (A) Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
Rationale: Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds, is indicative of hyperstimulation of the uterus, which could result in injury to the mother and the fetus if Pitocin is not discontinued.
9. Answer: (C) EKG tracings
Rationale: A potential side effect of calcium gluconate administration is cardiac arrest. Continuous monitoring of cardiac activity (EKG) throught administration of calcium gluconate is an essential part of care.
10. Answer: (D) First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.
Rationale: This type of client has no obstetrical indication for a caesarean section as she did with her first caesarean delivery.
11. Answer: (A) Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
Rationale: When dealing with a crying toddler, the best approach is to talk to the mother and ignore the toddler first. This approach helps the toddler get used to the nurse before she attempts any procedures. It also gives the toddler an opportunity to see that the mother trusts the nurse.
12. Answer: (D) Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.
Rationale: Soft restraints from the upper arm to the wrist prevent the infant from touching her lip but allow him to hold a favorite item such as a blanket. Because they could damage the operative site, such as objects as pacifiers, suction catheters, and small spoons shouldn’t be placed in a baby’s mouth after cleft repair. A baby in a prone position may rub her face on the sheets and traumatize the operative site. The suture line should be cleaned gently to prevent infection, which could interfere with healing and damage the cosmetic appearance of the repair.
13. Answer: (B) Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
Rationale: Because feeding requires so much energy, an infant with heart failure should rest before feeding.
14. Answer: (C) Iron-rich formula only.
Rationale: The infants at age 5 months should receive iron-rich formula and that they shouldn’t receive solid food, even baby food until age 6 months.
15. Answer: (D) 10 months
Rationale: A 10 month old infant can sit alone and understands object permanence, so he would look for the hidden toy. At age 4 to 6 months, infants can’t sit securely alone. At age 8 months, infants can sit securely alone but cannot understand the permanence of objects.
16. Answer: (D) Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.
Rationale: The catchments area in PHN consists of a residential community, many of whom are well individuals who have greater need for
preventive rather than curative services.
17. Answer: (B) Efficiency
Rationale: Efficiency is determining whether the goals were attained at the least possible cost.
18. Answer: (D) Rural Health Unit
Rationale: R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units (LGU’s ). The public health nurse is an employee of the LGU.
19. Answer: (A) Mayor
Rationale: The local executive serves as the chairman of the Municipal Health Board.
20. Answer: (A) 1
Rationale: Each rural health midwife is given a population assignment of about 5,000.
21. Answer: (B) Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services.
Rationale: The community health nurse develops the health capability of people through health education and community organizing activities.
22. Answer: (B) Measles
Rationale: Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas Tigdas Program.
23. Answer: (D) Core group formation
Rationale: In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology of community organizing to the potential or informal community leaders through a training program.
24. Answer: (D) To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems.
Rationale: Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of developing the people’s self-reliance in dealing with community
health problems. A, B and C are objectives of contributory objectives to this goal.
25. Answer: (D) Terminal
Rationale: Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a disease).
26. Answer: (A) Intrauterine fetal death.
Rationale: Intrauterine fetal death, abruptio placentae, septic shock, and amniotic fluid embolism may trigger normal clotting mechanisms; if clotting factors are depleted, DIC may occur. Placenta accreta, dysfunctional labor, and premature rupture of the membranes aren't associated with DIC.
27. Answer: (C) 120 to 160 beats/minute
Rationale: A rate of 120 to 160 beats/minute in the fetal heart appropriate for filling the heart with blood and pumping it out to the system.
28. Answer: (A) Change the diaper more often.
Rationale: Decreasing the amount of time the skin comes contact with wet soiled diapers will help heal the irritation.
29. Answer: (D) Endocardial cushion defect
Rationale: Endocardial cushion defects are seen most in children with Down syndrome, asplenia, or polysplenia.
30. Answer: (B) Decreased urine output
Rationale: Decreased urine output may occur in clients receiving I.V. magnesium and should be monitored closely to keep urine output at
greater than 30 ml/hour, because magnesium is excreted through the kidneys and can easily accumulate to toxic levels.
31. Answer: (A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is an excessive menstrual period.
32. Answer: (C) Blood typing
Rationale: Blood type would be a critical value to have because the risk of blood loss is always a potential complication during the labor and delivery process. Approximately 40% of a woman’s cardiac output is delivered to the uterus, therefore, blood loss can occur quite rapidly in the event of uncontrolled bleeding.
33. Answer: (D) Physiologic anemia
Rationale: Hemoglobin values and hematocrit decrease during pregnancy as the increase in plasma volume exceeds the increase in red blood cell production.
34. Answer: (D) A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s arms and drooling.
Rationale: The infant with the airway emergency should be treated first, because of the risk of epiglottitis.
35. Answer: (A) Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa with painless vaginal bleeding.
36. Answer: (D) Early in the morning
Rationale: Based on the nurse’s knowledge of microbiology, the specimen should be collected early in the morning. The rationale for this
timing is that, because the female worm lays eggs at night around the perineal area, the first bowel movement of the day will yield the best
results. The specific type of stool specimen used in the diagnosis of pinworms is called the tape test.
37. Answer: (A) Irritability and seizures
Rationale: Lead poisoning primarily affects the CNS, causing increased intracranial pressure. This condition results in irritability and changes in level of consciousness, as well as seizure disorders, hyperactivity, and learning disabilities.
38. Answer: (D) “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.
Rationale: The woman must understand that, although the “fertile” period is approximately mid-cycle, hormonal variations do occur and can result in early or late ovulation. To be effective, the diaphragm should be inserted before every intercourse.
39. Answer: (C) Restlessness
Rationale: In a child, restlessness is the earliest sign of hypoxia. Late signs of hypoxia in a child are associated with a change in color, such as pallor or cyanosis.
40. Answer: (B) Walk one step ahead, with the child’s hand on the nurse’s elbow.
Rationale: This procedure is generally recommended to follow in guiding a person who is blind.
41. Answer: (A) Loud, machinery-like murmur.
Rationale: A loud, machinery-like murmur is a characteristic finding associated with patent ductus arteriosus.
42. Answer: (C) More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
Rationale: When cold, the infant requires more oxygen and there is an increase in metabolic rate. Non-shievering thermogenesis is a complex process that increases the metabolic rate and rate of oxygen consumption, therefore, the newborn increase heat production.
43. Answer: (D) Voided
Rationale: Before administering potassium I.V. to any client, the nurse must first check that the client’s kidneys are functioning and that the client is voiding. If the client is not voiding, the nurse should withhold the potassium and notify the physician.
44. Answer: (c) Laundry detergent
Rationale: Eczema or dermatitis is an allergic skin reaction caused by an offending allergen. The topical allergen that is the most common causative factor is laundry detergent.
45. Answer: (A) 6 inches
Rationale: This distance allows for easy flow of the formula by gravity, but the flow will be slow enough not to overload the stomach too rapidly.
46. Answer: (A) The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
Rationale: Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in children. Complications, such as pneumonia, are higher in incidence in adults.
47. Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant women.
48. Answer: (A) Contact tracing
Rationale: Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted diseases.
49. Answer: (D) Leptospirosis
Rationale: Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.
50. Answer: (B) Cholera
Rationale: Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera. Both amebic and bacillary dysentery are characterized by the
presence of blood and/or mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is characterized by fat malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea.
51. Answer: (A) Hemophilus influenzae
Rationale: Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5 years. In developing countries, the peak incidence is in children less than 6 months of age. Morbillivirus is the etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but age distribution is not specific in young children.
52. Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa
Rationale: Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.
53. Answer: (A) 3 seconds
Rationale: Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds.
54. Answer: (B) Severe dehydration
Rationale: The order of priority in the management of severe dehydration is as follows: intravenous fluid therapy, referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated within 30 minutes, Oresol or nasogastric tube. When the foregoing measures are not possible or effective, then urgent referral to the hospital is done.
55. Answer: (A) 45 infants
Rationale: To estimate the number of infants, multiply total population by 3%.
56. Answer: (A) DPT
Rationale: DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and measles vaccine are highly
sensitive to heat and require freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program on Immunization.
57. Answer: (C) Proper use of sanitary toilets
Rationale: The ova of the parasite get out of the human body together with feces. Cutting the cycle at this stage is the most effective way of preventing the spread of the disease to susceptible hosts.
58. Answer: (D) 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
Rationale: A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a positive slit skin smear and at least 5 skin lesions.
59. Answer: (C) Thickened painful nerves
Rationale: The lesion of leprosy is not macular. It is characterized by a change in skin color (either reddish or whitish) and loss of sensation, sweating and hair growth over the lesion. Inability to close the eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking of the nosebridge are late symptoms.
60. Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides.
Rationale: Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client’s family resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where she was brought and whether she stayed overnight in that area.
61. Answer: (A) Inability to drink
Rationale: A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken.
62. Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
Rationale: “Baggy pants” is a sign of severe marasmus. The best management is urgent referral to a hospital.
63. Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
Rationale: If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly.
64. Answer: (B) Some dehydration
Rationale: Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the skin goes back slow after a skin pinch.
65. Answer: (C) Normal
Rationale: In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.
66. Answer: (A) 1 year
Rationale: The baby will have passive natural immunity by placental transfer of antibodies. The mother will have active artificial immunity
lasting for about 10 years. 5 doses will give the mother lifetime protection.
67. Answer: (B) 4 hours
Rationale: While the unused portion of other biologicals in EPI may be given until the end of the day, only BCG is discarded 4 hours after
reconstitution. This is why BCG immunization is scheduled only in the morning.
68. Answer: (B) 6 months
Rationale: After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially the baby’s iron requirement, can no longer be provided by mother’s milk
69. Answer: (C) 24 weeks
Rationale: At approximately 23 to 24 weeks’ gestation, the lungs are developed enough to sometimes maintain extrauterine life. The lungs are the most immature system during the gestation period. Medical care for premature labor begins much earlier (aggressively at 21 weeks’ gestation)
70. Answer: (B) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
Rationale: Supine positioning is recommended to reduce the risk of SIDS in infancy. The risk of aspiration is slightly increased with the supine position. Suffocation would be less likely with an infant supine than prone and the position for GER requires the head of the bed to be elevated.
71. Answer: (C) Decreased temperature
Rationale: Temperature instability, especially when it results in a low temperature in the neonate, may be a sign of infection. The neonate’s
color often changes with an infection process but generally becomes ashen or mottled. The neonate with an infection will usually show a
decrease in activity level or lethargy.
72. Answer: (D) Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
Rationale: The small-for-gestation neonate is at risk for developing polycythemia during the transitional period in an attempt to decrease
hypoxia. The neonates are also at increased risk for developing hypoglycemia and hypothermia due to decreased glycogen stores.
73. Answer: (C) Desquamation of the epidermis
Rationale: Postdate fetuses lose the vernix caseosa, and the epidermis may become desquamated. These neonates are usually very alert. Lanugo is missing in the postdate neonate.
74. Answer: (C) Respiratory depression
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and adverse neonatal effects are respiratory depression, hypotonia, and bradycardia. The serum blood sugar isn’t affected by magnesium sulfate. The neonate would be floppy, not jittery.
75. Answer: (C) Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
Rationale: A respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute is normal for a neonate during the transitional period. Nasal flaring, respiratory rate more than 60 breaths/minute, and audible grunting are signs of respiratory distress.
76. Answer: (C) Keep the cord dry and open to air
Rationale: Keeping the cord dry and open to air helps reduce infection and hastens drying. Infants aren’t given tub bath but are sponged off until the cord falls off. Petroleum jelly prevents the cord from drying and encourages infection. Peroxide could be painful and isn’t recommended.
77. Answer: (B) Conjunctival hemorrhage
Rationale: Conjunctival hemorrhages are commonly seen in neonates secondary to the cranial pressure applied during the birth process. Bulging fontanelles are a sign of intracranial pressure. Simian creases are present in 40% of the neonates with trisomy 21. Cystic hygroma is a neck mass that can affect the airway.
78. Answer: (B) To assess for prolapsed cord
Rationale: After a client has an amniotomy, the nurse should assure that the cord isn't prolapsed and that the baby tolerated the procedure well. The most effective way to do this is to check the fetal heart rate. Fetal well-being is assessed via a nonstress test. Fetal position is determined by vaginal examination. Artificial rupture of membranes doesn't indicate an imminent delivery.
79. Answer: (D) The parents’ interactions with each other.
Rationale: Parental interaction will provide the nurse with a good assessment of the stability of the family's home life but it has no indication for parental bonding. Willingness to touch and hold the newborn, expressing interest about the newborn's size, and indicating a desire to see the newborn are behaviors indicating parental bonding.
80. Answer: (B) Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area
Rationale: Using two or more peripads would do little to reduce the pain or promote perineal healing. Cold applications, sitz baths, and Kegel
exercises are important measures when the client has a fourth-degree laceration.
81. Answer: (C) “What is your expected due date?”
Rationale: When obtaining the history of a client who may be in labor, the nurse's highest priority is to determine her current status, particularly her due date, gravidity, and parity. Gravidity and parity affect the duration of labor and the potential for labor complications. Later, the nurse should ask about chronic illnesses, allergies, and support persons.
82. Answer: (D) Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.
Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to clear the neonate's airway with a bulb syringe. After the airway is clear and the neonate's color improves, the nurse should comfort and calm the neonate. If the problem recurs or the neonate's color doesn't improve readily, the nurse should notify the physician. Administering oxygen when the airway isn't clear would be ineffective.
83. Answer: (C) Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an amniotic fluid index.
Rationale: It isn't within a nurse's scope of practice to perform and interpret a bedside ultrasound under these conditions and without
specialized training. Observing for pooling of straw-colored fluid, checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper, and observing for flakes of vernix are appropriate assessments for determining whether a client has ruptured membranes.
84. Answer: (C) Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (Pao2) levels.
Rationale: Monitoring PaO2 levels and reducing the oxygen concentration to keep PaO2 within normal limits reduces the risk of retinopathy of prematurity in a premature infant receiving oxygen. Covering the infant's eyes and humidifying the oxygen don't reduce the risk of retinopathy of prematurity. Because cooling increases the risk of acidosis, the infant should be kept warm so that his respiratory distress
85. Answer: (A) 110 to 130 calories per kg.
Rationale: Calories per kg is the accepted way of determined appropriate nutritional intake for a newborn. The recommended calorie requirement is 110 to 130 calories per kg of newborn body weight. This level will maintain a consistent blood glucose level and provide enough calories for continued growth and development.
86. Answer: (C) 30 to 32 weeks
Rationale: Individual twins usually grow at the same rate as singletons until 30 to 32 weeks’ gestation, then twins don’t’ gain weight as rapidly as singletons of the same gestational age. The placenta can no longer keep pace with the nutritional requirements of both fetuses after 32 weeks, so there’s some growth retardation in twins if they remain in utero at 38 to 40 weeks.
87. Answer: (A) conjoined twins
Rationale: The type of placenta that develops in monozygotic twins depends on the time at which cleavage of the ovum occurs. Cleavage in conjoined twins occurs more than 13 days after fertilization. Cleavage that occurs less than 3 day after fertilization results in diamniotic dicchorionic twins. Cleavage that occurs between days 3 and 8 results in diamniotic monochorionic twins. Cleavage that occurs between days 8 to 13 result in monoamniotic monochorionic twins.
88. Answer: (D) Ultrasound
Rationale: Once the mother and the fetus are stabilized, ultrasound evaluation of the placenta should be done to determine the cause of the bleeding. Amniocentesis is contraindicated in placenta previa. A digital or speculum examination shouldn’t be done as this may lead to severe bleeding or hemorrhage. External fetal monitoring won’t detect a placenta previa, although it will detect fetal distress, which may result from blood loss or placenta separation.
89. Answer: (A) Increased tidal volume
Rationale: A pregnant client breathes deeper, which increases the tidal volume of gas moved in and out of the respiratory tract with each breath. The expiratory volume and residual volume decrease as the pregnancy progresses. The inspiratory capacity increases during pregnancy. The increased oxygen consumption in the pregnant client is 15% to 20% greater than in the nonpregnant state.
90. Answer: (A) Diet
Rationale: Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by diet alone to control their glucose intolerance. Oral hypoglycemic drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy. Long-acting insulin usually isn’t needed for blood glucose control in the client with gestational diabetes.
91. Answer: (D) Seizure
Rationale: The anticonvulsant mechanism of magnesium is believes to depress seizure foci in the brain and peripheral neuromuscular blockade. Hypomagnesemia isn’t a complication of preeclampsia. Antihypertensive drug other than magnesium are preferred for sustained hypertension. Magnesium doesn’t help prevent hemorrhage in preeclamptic clients.
92. Answer: (C) I.V. fluids
Rationale: A sickle cell crisis during pregnancy is usually managed by exchange transfusion oxygen, and L.V. Fluids. The client usually needs a stronger analgesic than acetaminophen to control the pain of a crisis. Antihypertensive drugs usually aren’t necessary. Diuretic wouldn’t be used unless fluid overload resulted.
93. Answer: (A) Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ten milliliters of 10% calcium gluconate is given L.V. push over 3 to 5 minutes. Hydralazine is given for sustained elevated blood pressure in preeclamptic clients. Rho (D) immune globulin is given to women with Rh-negative blood to prevent antibody formation from RH-positive conceptions. Naloxone is used to correct narcotic toxicity.
94. Answer: (B) An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
Rationale: A positive PPD result would be an indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter that appears in 48 to 72 hours. The area must be a raised wheal, not a flat circumcised area to be considered positive.
95. Answer: (C) Pyelonephritis
Rational: The symptoms indicate acute pyelonephritis, a serious condition in a pregnant client. UTI symptoms include dysuria, urgency, frequency, and suprapubic tenderness. Asymptomatic bacteriuria doesn’t cause symptoms. Bacterial vaginosis causes milky white vaginal discharge but no systemic symptoms.
96. Answer: (B) Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies.
Rationale: Rh isoimmunization occurs when Rh-positive fetal blood cells cross into the maternal circulation and stimulate maternal antibody
production. In subsequent pregnancies with Rh-positive fetuses, maternal antibodies may cross back into the fetal circulation and destroy the fetal blood cells.
97. Answer: (C) Supine position
Rationale: The supine position causes compression of the client's aorta and inferior vena cava by the fetus. This, in turn, inhibits maternal
circulation, leading to maternal hypotension and, ultimately, fetal hypoxia. The other positions promote comfort and aid labor progress. For instance, the lateral, or side-lying, position improves maternal and fetal circulation, enhances comfort, increases maternal relaxation, reduces muscle tension, and eliminates pressure points. The squatting position promotes comfort by taking advantage of gravity. The standing position also takes advantage of gravity and aligns the fetus with the pelvic angle.
98. Answer: (B) Irritability and poor sucking.
Rationale: Neonates of heroin-addicted mothers are physically dependent on the drug and experience withdrawal when the drug is no
longer supplied. Signs of heroin withdrawal include irritability, poor sucking, and restlessness. Lethargy isn't associated with neonatal heroin
addiction. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips are seen in infants with fetal alcohol syndrome. Heroin use during pregnancy hasn't been linked to specific congenital anomalies.
99. Answer: (A) 7th to 9th day postpartum
Rationale: The normal involutional process returns the uterus to the pelvic cavity in 7 to 9 days. A significant involutional complication is the failure of the uterus to return to the pelvic cavity within the prescribed time period. This is known as subinvolution.
100. Answer: (B) Uterine atony
Rationale: Multiple fetuses, extended labor stimulation with oxytocin, and traumatic delivery commonly are associated with uterine atony, which may lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine inversion may precede or follow delivery and commonly results from apparent excessive traction on the umbilical cord and attempts to deliver the placenta manually. Uterine involution and some uterine discomfort are normal after delivery.