Text Mode – Text version of the exam 1. Nurse Miranda was reviewing Mr. Thompson’s health history. He was a long-time sufferer of cirrhosis, and now he was exhibiting signs of ascites. Miranda wondered what factors could be exacerbating Mr. Thompson’s condition. Which of the following does not typically contribute to ascites? A. Elevated concentrations of angiotensin I. 2. During her evening rounds, Nurse Anderson was administering medications to Mrs. Johnson, who had recently been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Anderson considered the properties of each drug. Which medication among the following is known to block histamine and decrease gastric acid production? A. Metoclopramide (Reglan) 3. In the early hours of the morning, nurse Abby was reviewing a patient’s chart who was just admitted for persistent abdominal pain. She pondered on the distinguishing characteristics of duodenal ulcers in order to develop a more accurate care plan. Which of these is NOT typically attributed to duodenal ulcers? A. Primarily seen in individuals younger than 65. 4. During a medical team meeting, Nurse Williams was discussing Mr. Brown’s gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) management. They were considering a medication that can neutralize stomach acid directly. Which of the following medications acts as an antacid? A. Metoclopramide (Reglan) 5. During a health promotion event, Nurse Rodriguez was providing information about Hepatitis C. She mentioned several features of this disease but noticed a misconception in her presentation. Which of the following is not a specific characteristic of Hepatitis C? A. Possibility of becoming a lifetime carrier. 6. Nurse Elliot was contemplating the best medication for Mr. Davis who had been struggling with gastroparesis. He knew that a dopamine antagonist might be beneficial. Which of the following medications acts as a dopamine antagonist? A. Metoclopramide 7. Nurse Larson was analyzing a patient’s chart who had recently been diagnosed with parotitis. In the case history, he noticed that the patient had been exposed to various microorganisms. Which of the following has been associated with parotitis? A. Schistosoma 8. During a nutrition seminar, Nurse Peters was explaining the storage sites of different vitamins in the body. A curious participant asked about the vitamins that are not stored in the liver. Which of the following vitamins is typically not stored in the liver? A. Vitamin A 9. In the midst of a heated discussion during a medical seminar, Nurse Thompson brought up the Whipple procedure. She asked the audience if they knew another term for this procedure. The Whipple procedure is also known as a ________. A. Cholangiogram 10. Nurse Graham was explaining the intricate functions of different cell types in the human body to a group of nursing students. He asked them which type of cell is responsible for releasing somatostatin. What type of cell releases this hormone? A. D cells 11. During a diabetes management workshop, Nurse Adams was detailing the role of various cell types involved in glucose regulation. She posed a question about the cell type responsible for insulin production. Which type of cell releases insulin? A. Plasma cells 12. While discussing various surgical procedures during a training session, Nurse Patel mentioned the Billroth I procedure. She asked if anyone knew an alternate term for this surgery. The Billroth I procedure is also known as a ________. A. Gastroduodenostomy 13. During a health education session, Nurse Richards was discussing the role of hormones in glucose metabolism. He asked the participants to identify the type of cell that is responsible for the release of glucagon. What type of cell releases this hormone? A. Plasma cells 14. During an anatomy lecture, Nurse Walker was explaining the complex vascular system supplying the digestive tract. He asked the students to identify the artery primarily responsible for supplying blood to the midgut. Which of the following arteries fulfills this role? A. Inferior Mesenteric Artery (IMA) 15. During a surgical nursing seminar, Nurse Harrison brought up the Billroth II procedure. She questioned the audience if they knew another term for this surgical procedure. The Billroth II procedure is also known as a ________. A. Gastrojejunostomy 16. In an anatomy and physiology lecture, Nurse Baxter was teaching about the nervous control of the gastrointestinal tract. She asked the students if they knew an alternate name for the myenteric plexus. The myenteric plexus is also known as the ________. A. Brachial plexus 17. While discussing the digestive process in a health education class, Nurse Bennett asked which enzyme was responsible for breaking down starches into maltose. Which of the following enzymes fulfills this role? A. Lipase 18. During a medication administration seminar, Nurse Matthews was discussing the principles of safe medication practices, including the ‘rights’ of medication. She posed a question about a term that is not traditionally considered one of these rights. Which of the following is not considered a ‘right’ of medication? A. Time 19. While attending to Mrs. Arnold, who had been struggling with delayed gastric emptying, Nurse Goodman contemplated the most suitable medication to alleviate her symptoms. Which of the following drugs assists in promoting gastric emptying? A. Ranitidine (Zantac) 20. In a pharmacology lecture, Nurse Webster was discussing different classes of drugs used to manage gastric acid disorders. She asked the students to identify which among the listed drugs is not considered an H2 blocker. Which of the following does not belong to this category? A. Cimetidine 1. Correct answer: A. Elevated concentrations of angiotensin I. Indeed, elevated concentrations of angiotensin I do not directly contribute to the formation of ascites. Angiotensin I is a hormone that is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. However, it is the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II that has more direct implications for fluid balance. Angiotensin II can lead to vasoconstriction and stimulate the release of aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water retention, a factor in ascites formation. However, elevated levels of angiotensin I alone do not necessarily contribute to ascites because angiotensin I is relatively inactive compared to angiotensin II. Think of it like a water hose with a nozzle – the water (angiotensin I) is ready to go, but until the nozzle (enzyme converting I to II) is opened, the water doesn’t contribute to the pool (ascites) formation. Incorrect answer options: B. High blood pressure. While it is correct to say that systemic high blood pressure does not directly lead to ascites, it’s important to note that portal hypertension, an increase in blood pressure within the portal venous system of the liver, is a significant contributor to the development of ascites in liver cirrhosis. C. Raised levels of aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone that increases sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys. In a condition like cirrhosis, aldosterone may not be effectively metabolized by the liver, leading to its accumulation. This leads to more sodium and water being retained in the body, which can contribute to ascites. D. Decreased albumin levels. Albumin is a critical protein in the blood that maintains oncotic pressure, preventing fluid from leaking out of the vasculature. With decreased albumin, such as in liver cirrhosis where its production can be compromised, more fluid leaks out and can accumulate in the peritoneal cavity, leading to ascites. 2. Correct answer: D. Cimetidine (Tagamet). Cimetidine, also known as Tagamet, is an H2 receptor antagonist. It works by blocking histamine action on H2 receptors in the stomach, specifically the parietal cells, which are responsible for producing gastric acid. When these H2 receptors are blocked, there is a decrease in gastric acid secretion, thereby creating a less acidic environment in the stomach. This helps in the healing of peptic ulcers. You can think of it as a water faucet (the parietal cells) that normally gets turned on by a key (histamine). Cimetidine acts like a lock shield that prevents the key (histamine) from turning on the faucet (parietal cells), leading to a reduction in water flow (gastric acid secretion). Incorrect answer options: A. Metoclopramide (Reglan). Metoclopramide is a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic. It primarily works by speeding up gastric emptying and increasing the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter to prevent acid reflux. It does not directly affect gastric acid production. B. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox). This medication is an antacid and it works by neutralizing gastric acid in the stomach after it has been produced. While it can help to alleviate symptoms associated with high stomach acidity, it does not inhibit the production of the acid itself. C. Omeprazole (Prilosec). Omeprazole belongs to the proton pump inhibitor (PPI) class of drugs. While it does reduce gastric acid production, it does not work by blocking histamine. Instead, it works by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme system (the “proton pump”) of the gastric parietal cells. 3. Correct answer: C. Potential for weight increased. Duodenal ulcers are a type of peptic ulcer disease that occurs in the first part of the small intestine, known as the duodenum. They are typically caused by an infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori or by long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Potential for weight increase is not a typical characteristic of duodenal ulcers. In fact, people with duodenal ulcers often experience weight loss, not gain. This is because the pain associated with eating can lead to a decrease in food intake. Furthermore, the body may not absorb nutrients as effectively when the lining of the duodenum is damaged by an ulcer, which can also contribute to weight loss. Consider duodenal ulcers like potholes on a road. Just as potholes can damage vehicles and disrupt traffic, duodenal ulcers can damage the lining of the intestine and disrupt the normal process of digestion. And just as potholes can become larger and more problematic if they’re not repaired, duodenal ulcers can become more serious and potentially even malignant if they’re not treated. Incorrect answer options: A. Primarily seen in individuals younger than 65: Duodenal ulcers are indeed more common in people under the age of 65. This is in contrast to gastric ulcers, which are more common in older adults. The reasons for this age difference are not entirely clear but may be related to differences in lifestyle factors, medication use, and the prevalence of H. pylori infection. B. Prevalent more in men than women: Duodenal ulcers are more common in men than in women. This could be due to a variety of factors, including differences in lifestyle habits such as smoking and alcohol consumption, which can increase the risk of duodenal ulcers. Additionally, some research suggests that estrogen may have a protective effect against the development of peptic ulcer disease, which could explain the lower prevalence in women. D. Non-malignant nature, but possible malignancy if left untreated: While most duodenal ulcers are benign, there is a small risk that they can become malignant if left untreated. This is why it’s important to treat duodenal ulcers promptly and effectively. 4. Correct answer: B. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox). Magnesium Hydroxide, better known by its brand name Maalox, is classified as an antacid. Antacids work by directly neutralizing gastric acid, thereby decreasing the acidity in the stomach and providing symptomatic relief to patients with conditions like GERD. This helps protect the esophageal and gastric lining from the corrosive effect of the acid. To give you an analogy, imagine the stomach as a swimming pool. In this case, the “water” in the pool is the gastric acid. If the water becomes too acidic (like in GERD), it can cause damage (to the stomach and esophageal lining). Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox) is like a chemical you add to the pool to neutralize the acidity of the water, thus preventing damage. Incorrect answer options: A. Metoclopramide (Reglan). This medication is a prokinetic and antiemetic agent, meaning it increases the speed of gastric emptying and reduces nausea and vomiting. It does not neutralize stomach acid directly. C. Omeprazole (Prilosec). This drug is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). It decreases the production of gastric acid by blocking the enzyme in the stomach wall that produces acid, but it does not neutralize the acid once it has been produced. D. Cimetidine (Tagamet). This medication is an H2 receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the action of histamine on the parietal cells of the stomach, thereby reducing the production of acid. Like Omeprazole, it does not neutralize the acid that has already been produced. 5. Correct answer: B. Availability of a preventive vaccine. There is no available vaccine to prevent Hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that causes liver inflammation, and while treatments exist to manage and cure the infection, prevention primarily relies on reducing the risk of exposure to the virus rather than vaccination. To put it in perspective, think of Hepatitis C like a specific type of pest that might infest a house. There might be ways to treat the infestation (antiviral medications) and behaviors to reduce the risk of infestation (safe injection practices, safe sex, etc.), but there isn’t a specific preventive “pest spray” (vaccine) available. Incorrect answer options: A. Possibility of becoming a lifetime carrier. This statement is true. A significant percentage of people with Hepatitis C can become chronic carriers of the virus. Chronic Hepatitis C infection can lead to serious complications like cirrhosis and liver cancer. C. Potential transmission through sexual contact. While the risk is much lower than with Hepatitis B and HIV, Hepatitis C can be transmitted through sexual contact, especially in individuals with multiple sexual partners, those who engage in rough or anal sex, or have an STD or HIV infection. D. Causes inflammation of the liver. This is indeed a characteristic of Hepatitis C. The virus targets liver cells, leading to inflammation that can cause damage over time and potentially lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. 6. Correct answer: A. Metoclopramide (Reglan). Metoclopramide, known as Reglan, is a dopamine antagonist. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the gut, thereby enhancing gut motility and accelerating gastric emptying. This action makes it beneficial for conditions like gastroparesis, where there is a delay in gastric emptying. Think of the gut like a conveyor belt in a factory, and dopamine as a brake. In gastroparesis, this conveyor belt is slower than it should be. Metoclopramide (Reglan), by acting as a dopamine antagonist, essentially releases the brake, allowing the conveyor belt (the gut) to move more quickly. Incorrect answer options: B. Cimetidine (Tagamet). Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist, which means it works by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach to reduce the production of stomach acid. It does not affect dopamine receptors or gut motility. C. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox). This medication is an antacid. It neutralizes stomach acid directly but does not influence dopamine receptors or gut motility. D. Omeprazole (Prilosec). Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. It works by reducing the production of stomach acid by blocking a specific enzyme system in the stomach. It does not impact dopamine receptors or gut motility. 7. Correct answer: C. Staphylococcus aureus. Parotitis is inflammation of the parotid gland, the largest salivary gland. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial infections. One of the common bacteria associated with parotitis is Staphylococcus aureus. In many cases, Staphylococcus aureus gains entry into the salivary glands through the salivary ducts, causing infection and subsequent inflammation. To put it in a relatable way, think of the salivary gland as a sponge that secretes saliva, and the duct as a hose that carries the saliva into the mouth. If unwanted debris, like the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus, gets into the hose and clogs it up, it can cause the sponge (the gland) to become inflamed. Incorrect answer options: A. Schistosoma. This is a type of parasitic flatworm that causes schistosomiasis, a disease primarily affecting the liver, intestines, and urinary bladder. It’s not typically associated with parotitis. B. Wuchereria bancrofti. This parasite causes lymphatic filariasis, which can lead to a condition known as elephantiasis characterized by severe swelling in the arms, legs, and genitals. It’s not typically associated with parotitis. D. Trypanosoma cruzi. This is the parasite that causes Chagas disease, affecting the nervous system and heart. It’s not typically associated with parotitis. 8. Correct answer: C. Vitamin C. Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin. It’s not stored in large quantities in the body, particularly not in the liver, and excess amounts are usually excreted through urine. The body requires a continuous supply of Vitamin C through dietary sources or supplements. It’s like rainwater, which can’t be stored for long periods and needs to be continually replenished. Incorrect answer options: A. Vitamin A. This is a fat-soluble vitamin, and like other fat-soluble vitamins, it can be stored in the body. The liver is the primary site for the storage of Vitamin A. B. Vitamin B. This is a group of vitamins, some of which (like vitamin B12) are stored in the liver to some extent. However, they aren’t typically stored in the large quantities seen with fat-soluble vitamins. D. Vitamin D. This is another fat-soluble vitamin, and it is stored in the liver and fatty tissues. When the body needs Vitamin D, it can be mobilized from these storage sites. 9. Correct answer: B. Pancreatoduodenectomy. The Whipple procedure, also known as a pancreatoduodenectomy, is a complex surgical procedure performed to remove the head of the pancreas, the first part of the small intestine (duodenum), the gallbladder and the bile duct. This operation is typically performed to treat pancreatic cancer or conditions affecting the pancreas or bile ducts. Imagine the pancreas and duodenum as a neighborhood in the body, and a dangerous threat, like cancer, has moved in. The Whipple procedure is like demolishing the parts of the neighborhood where the threat resides, to protect the rest of the city (the body). Incorrect answer options: A. Cholangiogram. This is a radiographic examination of the bile ducts with the aid of a contrast medium. It is not a surgical procedure. C. Cholecystogram. This is a diagnostic procedure used to visualize the gallbladder. It involves the use of X-rays and a contrast dye to create images of the gallbladder and bile ducts. D. Cholangiopancreatography. This refers to imaging techniques, such as endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), that are used to examine the bile and pancreatic ducts. These are diagnostic procedures, not surgical ones. 10. Correct answer: A. D cells. D cells, also known as delta cells, are a type of cell found in the pancreas and the gastrointestinal tract. They are responsible for the secretion of somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of other hormones including insulin and glucagon from the pancreas, and gastrin from the stomach. Somatostatin has a regulating role in the endocrine system. Think of it as a gatekeeper or a moderator at a meeting, ensuring that not too many messages (or in this case, hormones) are sent out at once. When hormone levels are high, somatostatin is secreted to inhibit further hormone release, preventing overactivity and maintaining balance within the system. Incorrect answer options: B. A cells. A cells, also known as alpha cells, are indeed located in the pancreas, but they are responsible for the secretion of glucagon, not somatostatin. Glucagon primarily works to increase blood sugar levels, acting in opposition to insulin. C. B cells. B cells are a type of white blood cell that is part of the immune system. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that can latch onto harmful invaders in the body, such as viruses and bacteria. Their role is not connected to the release of somatostatin. D. Plasma cells. Plasma cells are also part of the immune system and are derived from B cells. They produce and release antibodies to fight off infections. Just like B cells, they do not have a role in the secretion of somatostatin. 11. Correct answer: C. B cells. In the pancreas, B cells stand for Beta cells. These cells are located in the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas, where they produce insulin. Insulin is a hormone that regulates the amount of glucose (sugar) in the blood. When blood glucose levels rise, such as after eating, beta cells release insulin to enable the body’s cells to absorb glucose from the bloodstream for energy or storage, lowering the amount of glucose in the blood. An analogy is that insulin acts as a ‘key,’ allowing glucose to ‘unlock’ cells and be used for energy. Incorrect answer options: A. Plasma cells. Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that is part of the immune system. They produce and release antibodies to fight off infections. They do not have a role in the secretion of insulin. B. A cells. Alpha cells (A cells) are located in the pancreas, but their role is to secrete glucagon, not insulin. Glucagon acts to raise blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. D. D cells. D cells, also known as delta cells, are found in the pancreas and the gastrointestinal tract. They are responsible for secreting somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of several other hormones, including insulin and glucagon. 12. Correct answer: A. Gastroduodenostomy. The Billroth I procedure, also known as gastroduodenostomy, is a surgical procedure where the lower portion of the stomach, or the pylorus, is removed and the remaining portion of the stomach is attached directly to the duodenum. This procedure is commonly used to treat conditions such as stomach cancer or peptic ulcer disease. Think of this procedure as rerouting a highway – if a section is damaged or dangerous, a new route is created directly to the next safe point. Incorrect answer options: B. Cholangiogram. A cholangiogram is a medical procedure used to visualize the bile ducts, often using contrast dye and X-rays. This is not a surgical procedure, but rather a diagnostic procedure. It is not an alternate term for the Billroth I procedure. C. Gastrojejunostomy. A gastrojejunostomy, often performed in a Billroth II procedure, is a surgical procedure where the stomach is connected to the jejunum, bypassing the duodenum. This procedure is typically performed in cases of duodenal or pancreatic head cancers, or complications from peptic ulcer disease. It is different from gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I), in which the stomach is connected directly to the duodenum. D. Cholecystogram. A cholecystogram is an imaging test used to examine the gallbladder for stones, inflammation, or other abnormalities. Like a cholangiogram, it is a diagnostic procedure, not a surgical procedure, and it is not an alternate term for the Billroth I procedure. 13.Correct answer: D. A cells. A cells, also known as alpha cells, are found in the pancreas, specifically in the islets of Langerhans. These cells are responsible for the secretion of glucagon. Glucagon plays a key role in glucose metabolism by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. This increases blood glucose levels, acting as a counterbalance to insulin, which decreases blood glucose levels. Imagine glucagon as a reserve team that comes into play when the primary energy source (glucose) runs low, providing the backup supply. Incorrect answer options: A. Plasma cells. Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell, part of the immune system. They are responsible for the production of antibodies, which are used to fight off foreign substances in the body. They do not have a role in the secretion of glucagon. B. B cells. B cells in the pancreas, also known as beta cells, are responsible for the production of insulin, not glucagon. In the context of the immune system, B cells are a type of white blood cell that produce antibodies to help fight off infections. C. D cells. D cells, or delta cells, are also found in the pancreas. These cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of other hormones, including insulin and glucagon, rather than producing glucagon itself. 14. Correct answer: C. Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA). The Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA) is the primary artery supplying blood to the midgut. The midgut consists of parts of the gastrointestinal tract including the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, the ileum, the ascending colon, and the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon. You can think of the SMA as the main road that delivers supplies to a large city. Without this artery, the organs it supplies (the city in our analogy) wouldn’t receive the necessary oxygen and nutrients (the supplies) to function correctly. Incorrect answer options: A. Inferior Mesenteric Artery (IMA). The Inferior Mesenteric Artery (IMA) supplies the hindgut, not the midgut. The hindgut includes the distal third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, and the rectum. B. Axillary Artery. The axillary artery is located in the upper limb, specifically in the armpit area. It has no role in supplying blood to the digestive tract. D. Celiac Artery. The celiac artery supplies blood to the foregut, not the midgut. The foregut includes the stomach, the first half of the duodenum, the liver, the pancreas, and the spleen. 15. Correct answer: A. Gastrojejunostomy. The Billroth II procedure, also known as gastrojejunostomy, is a type of surgery where the remaining part of the stomach (after partial gastrectomy) is attached directly to the jejunum, bypassing the duodenum. This procedure is commonly used to treat conditions such as stomach cancer or peptic ulcer disease. It’s like creating a detour in a road when a usual part is inaccessible, the stomach (like the road) now leads directly to the jejunum, bypassing the duodenum (the inaccessible part). Incorrect answer options: B. Cholecystogram. A cholecystogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure used to visualize the gallbladder for stones or other abnormalities. This term does not refer to a type of surgical procedure, and it is not another term for the Billroth II procedure. C. Cholangiogram. A cholangiogram is a diagnostic procedure used to visualize the bile ducts. This term does not refer to a type of surgical procedure, and it is not another term for the Billroth II procedure. D. Gastroduodenostomy. Gastroduodenostomy, also known as the Billroth I procedure, is a different surgical procedure from Billroth II. In a gastroduodenostomy, the remaining part of the stomach is connected directly to the duodenum. 16. Correct answer: B. Auerbach’s plexus. The myenteric plexus is also known as Auerbach’s plexus. It is one of the major nerve networks in the gastrointestinal tract and plays a crucial role in controlling gastrointestinal motility. Imagine Auerbach’s plexus as the electrical wiring of a building, regulating the function and synchronization of various equipment (in this case, the smooth muscles of the GI tract). Incorrect answer options: A. Brachial plexus. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves found in the shoulder area, supplying the upper limb. It is not an alternative name for the myenteric plexus. C. Submucosal plexus. The submucosal plexus, also known as Meissner’s plexus, is another nerve network in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not the same as the myenteric plexus. While Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus controls the contractile strength and frequency of the smooth muscles in the gastrointestinal tract, Meissner’s (submucosal) plexus primarily controls the function of the gastrointestinal mucosa, including secretion and blood flow. D. Lumbar plexus. The lumbar plexus is a network of nerves located in the lower back, providing sensory and motor function to parts of the lower body. It is not an alternative name for the myenteric plexus. 17. Correct answer: B. Amylase. Amylase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down starches into maltose. Starches are complex carbohydrates found in foods like bread, pasta, and potatoes. When you eat these foods, your saliva and pancreatic juice release amylase to begin the process of carbohydrate digestion, breaking the starches down into smaller sugars like maltose. It’s akin to breaking down a large, unwieldy package into smaller, manageable parcels. Incorrect answer options: A. Lipase. Lipase is an enzyme that breaks down dietary fats, not starches. Think of lipase like a pair of scissors that cuts up fat molecules into smaller, absorbable pieces. C. Trypsinogen. Trypsinogen is a precursor to trypsin, which is an enzyme that breaks down proteins in the digestive process, not starches. It’s produced by the pancreas and is converted into trypsin in the small intestine. It’s like a puzzle piece that doesn’t become fully functional until it finds its proper place. D. Pepsin. Pepsin is an enzyme that breaks down proteins in the stomach, not starches. It’s part of the body’s chemical toolkit for protein digestion, functioning best in the acidic environment of the stomach. 18. Correct answer: B. Limit. Traditionally, “limit” is not considered one of the ‘rights’ of medication administration. The basic rights of medication administration are typically listed as the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and more recently, right documentation and right to refuse. Each ‘right’ serves as a checkpoint to ensure the safety of medication administration, much like a checklist used by pilots before takeoff. Incorrect answer options: A. Time. “Right time” is indeed one of the traditional rights of medication administration. It ensures that medications are given at the correct times to maintain therapeutic levels in the bloodstream, avoiding potential under- or over-dosing. C. Route. “Right route” is another key principle in the rights of medication administration. This refers to the method by which the drug is given (e.g., orally, intravenously, topically), ensuring that the medication is delivered in the manner intended for optimal therapeutic benefit. D. Dose. “Right dose” is a crucial part of safe medication administration. This checks that the correct amount of medication is given, preventing potential under-dosing (which could render the medication ineffective) or overdosing (which could cause harmful side effects). 19. Correct answer: D. Cisapride (Propulsid). Cisapride, sold under the brand name Propulsid, is a medication known as a prokinetic agent. It works by enhancing the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that promotes muscle contraction in the gastrointestinal tract. This results in an increased rate of gastric emptying, making it a useful medication for conditions characterized by delayed gastric emptying. Imagine this medication as a traffic director, ensuring that cars (food particles) are moving along a road (the stomach) at the right speed. Incorrect answer options: A. Ranitidine (Zantac). Ranitidine, also known as Zantac, is a medication used to reduce stomach acid production. It belongs to a class of drugs known as H2 blockers. While it is effective for treating conditions such as gastric ulcers or reflux disease, it does not directly promote gastric emptying. B. Famotidine (Pepcid). Famotidine, or Pepcid, is another medication used to reduce the production of stomach acid, also classified as an H2 blocker. It is used to treat and prevent ulcers in the stomach and intestines and to manage gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), but does not directly promote gastric emptying. C. Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate). Tranylcypromine, under the brand name Parnate, is a type of antidepressant, specifically a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It has no direct role in promoting gastric emptying. 20. Correct answer: B. Sucralfate (Carafate). Sucralfate (Carafate) is not an H2 blocker. It is actually a medication primarily used for treating active duodenal ulcers. It works by forming a protective barrier over these ulcers, promoting healing and preventing further damage from acid and pepsin. Imagine it as a temporary plaster applied over a wall crack, protecting the damaged area and facilitating repair. Incorrect answer options: A. Cimetidine (Tagamet). Cimetidine, also known as Tagamet, is indeed an H2 blocker. It works by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach, thereby reducing the production of gastric acid. Think of it as a dam that holds back the flow of water (in this case, stomach acid). C. Ranitidine (Zantac). Ranitidine, or Zantac, is another H2 blocker. It functions similarly to cimetidine, reducing stomach acid production and thereby treating or preventing conditions like peptic ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D. Famotidine (Pepcid). Famotidine, commercially known as Pepcid, is also an H2 blocker. It performs the same function as the other H2 blockers – inhibiting gastric acid production and therefore helping to manage acid-related gastrointestinal conditions.Practice Mode
Exam Mode
Text Mode
Questions
B. High blood pressure.
C. Raised levels of aldosterone.
D. Decreased albumin levels.
B. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B. Prevalent more in men than women.
C. Potential for weight increased.
D. Non-malignant nature, but possible malignancy if left untreated.
B. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B. Availability of a preventive vaccine.
C. Potential transmission through sexual contact.
D. Causes inflammation of the liver.
B. Cimetidine
C. Magnesium Hydroxide
D. Omeprazole
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
B. Pancreatoduodenectomy
C. Cholecystogram
D. Cholangiopancreatography
B. A cells
C. B cells
D. Plasma cells
B. A cells
C. B cells
D. D cells
B. Cholangiogram
C. Gastrojejunostomy
D. Cholecystogram
B. B cells
C. D cells
D. A cells
B. Axillary Artery
C. Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA)
D. Celiac Artery
B. Cholecystogram
C. Cholangiogram
D. Gastroduodenostomy
B. Auerbach’s plexus
C. Submucosal plexus
D. Lumbar plexus
B. Amylase
C. Trypsinogen
D. Pepsin
B. Limit
C. Route
D. Dose
B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
C. Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate)
D. Cisapride (Propulsid)
B. Sucralfate
C. Ranitidine
D. FamotidineAnswers and Rationales