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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pediatric Nursing 1 (PM)
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Question 1
Which of the following blood study results would the nurse expect as most likely when caring for the child with iron deficiency anemia?
A
Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B
Normal hematocrit
C
Increased hemoglobin
D
Normal total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
Question 1 Explanation:
For the child with iron deficiency anemia, the blood study results most likely would reveal decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) which demonstrates microcytic anemia, decreased hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit and elevated total iron binding capacity.
Question 2
The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test:
A
blood culture.
B
lumbar puncture.
C
throat and ear culture.
D
CAT scan.
Question 2 Explanation:
Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, the outer membrane of the brain. Since it is surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid, a lumbar puncture will help to identify the organism involved.
Question 3
The twelve-year-old boy has fractured his arm because of a fall from his bike. After the injury has been casted, the nurse knows it is most important to perform all of the following assessments on the area distal to the injury except:
A
capillary refill.
B
radial and ulnar pulse.
C
skin integrity
D
finger movement
Question 3 Explanation:
Capillary refill, pulses, and skin temperature and color are indicative of intact circulation and absence of compartment syndrome. Skin integrity is less important.
Question 4
An inborn error of metabolism that causes premature destruction of RBC?
A
G6PD
B
Celiac Disease
C
Hemocystinuria
D
Phenylketonuria
Question 4 Explanation:
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is an X-linked recessive hereditary disease characterised by abnormally low levels of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (abbreviated G6PD or G6PDH), a metabolic enzyme involved in the pentose phosphate pathway, especially important in red blood cell metabolism.
Question 5
Buck’s traction with a 10 lb. weight is securing a patient’s leg while she is waiting for surgery to repair a hip fracture. It is important to check circulation- sensation-movement:
A
every 15 minutes.
B
every 4 hours.
C
every day.
D
every shift.
Question 5 Explanation:
The patient can lose vascular status without the nurse being aware if left for more than 4 hours, yet checks should not be so frequent that the patient becomes anxious. Vital signs are generally checked q4h, at which time the CSM checks can easily be performed.
Question 6
The nurse is drawing blood from the diabetic patient for a glycosolated hemoglobin test. She explains to the woman that the test is used to determine:
A
glucose levels over the past several months.
B
her insulin level.
C
the highest glucose level in the past week.
D
her usual fasting glucose level.
Question 6 Explanation:
The glycosolated hemoglobin test measures glucose levels for the previous 3 to 4 months.
Question 7
Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
A
Haemophilus influenza
B
Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
C
Streptococcal pneumonia
D
Staphylococcus aureus
Question 7 Explanation:
Rheumatic fever results as a delayed reaction to inadequately treated group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
Question 8
Which of the following would be inappropriate when administering chemotherapy to a child?
A
Administering medication through a free-flowing intravenous line
B
Assessing for signs of infusion infiltration and irritation
C
Monitoring the child for both general and specific adverse effects
D
Observing the child for 10 minutes to note for signs of anaphylaxis
Question 8 Explanation:
When administering chemotherapy, the nurse should observe for an anaphylactic reaction for 20 minutes and stop the medication if one is suspected. Chemotherapy is associated with both general and specific adverse effects, therefore close monitoring for them is important.
Question 9
Which of the following situations increase risk of lead poisoning in children?
A
playing sand in the park
B
playing with stuffed toys at home
C
playing plastic balls with other children
D
playing in the park with heavy traffic and with many vehicles passing by
Question 9 Explanation:
Lead poisoning may be caused by inhalation of dusk and smoke from leaded gas. It may also be caused by lead-based paint, soil, water (especially from plumbings of old houses).
Question 10
The nurse is assessing a newborn who had undergone vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings is least likely to be observed in a normal newborn?
A
uneven head shape
B
heart rate is 80 bpm
C
respirations are irregular, abdominal, 30-60 bpm
D
(+) moro reflex
Question 10 Explanation:
Normal heart rate of the newborn is 120 to 160 bpm. The remaining answer choices are normal assessment findings (uneven head shape is molding).
Question 11
The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby check up. Which of the following observations would be of most concern?
A
The baby cannot say “mama” when he wants his mother.
B
The mother has not given him finger foods.
C
The child does not sit unsupported.
D
The baby cries whenever the mother goes out.
Question 11 Explanation:
Over 90% percent of babies can sit unsupported by nine months. Most babies cannot say “mama” in the sense that it refers to their mother at this time.
Question 12
Which of the following is the best method for performing a physical examination on a toddler
A
Distally to proximally
B
From least to most intrusive
C
From head to toe
D
From abdomen to toes, the to head
Question 12 Explanation:
When examining a toddler or any small child, the best way to perform the exam is from least to most intrusive. Starting at the head or abdomen is intrusive and should be avoided. Proceeding from distal to proximal is inappropriate at any age.
Question 13
Carol Smith is using bronchodilators for asthma. The side effects of these drugs that you need to monitor this patient for include:
A
blurred vision, tachycardia, hypertension, headache, insomnia, and oliguria.
B
tachycardia, headache, dyspnea, temp . 101 F, and wheezing.
C
restlessness, insomnia, blurred vision, hypertension, chest pain, and muscle weakness.
D
tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, heart palpitations, inability to sleep, restlessness, and seizures.
Question 13 Explanation:
Bronchodilators can produce the side effects listed in the correct answer for a short time after the patient begins using them.
Question 14
The nurse answers a call bell and finds a frightened mother whose child, the patient, is having a seizure. Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A
The nurse should help the mother restrain the child to prevent him from injuring himself.
B
The nurse should call the operator to page for seizure assistance.
C
The nurse should clear the area and position the client safely.
D
The nurse should insert a padded tongue blade in the patient’s mouth to prevent the child from swallowing or choking on his tongue.
Question 14 Explanation:
The primary role of the nurse when a patient has a seizure is to protect the patient from harming him or herself.
Question 15
At the community center, the nurse leads an adolescent health information group, which often expands into other areas of discussion. She knows that these youths are trying to find out “who they are,” and discussion often focuses on which directions they want to take in school and life, as well as peer relationships. According to Erikson, this stage is known as:
A
identity vs. role confusion.
B
adolescent rebellion.
C
relationship testing
D
career experimentation.
Question 15 Explanation:
During this period, which lasts up to the age of 18-21 years, the individual develops a sense of “self.” Peers have a major big influence over behavior, and the major decision is to determine a vocational goal.
Question 16
Sally Kent., age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection exists. The best position to keep her in after the procedure is:
A
supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
B
semi-fowler’s so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained.
C
prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
D
supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
Question 16 Explanation:
Lying flat keeps the patient from having a “spinal headache.” Increasing the fluid intake will assist in replenishing the lost fluid during this time.
Question 17
A mother tells the nurse that she is very worried because her 2-year old child does not finish his meals. What should the nurse advise the mother?
A
make the child seat with the family in the dining room until he finishes his meal
B
provide quiet environment for the child before meals
C
do not give snacks to the child before meals
D
put the child on a chair and feed him
Question 17 Explanation:
If the child is hungry he/she more likely would finish his meals. Therefore, the mother should be advised not to give snacks to the child. The child is a “busy toddler.” He/she will not able to keep still for a long time.
Question 18
How does the nurse appropriately administer mycostatin suspension in an infant?
A
Mix mycostatin with formula
B
Have the infant drink water, and then administer mycostatin in a syringe
C
Place mycostatin on the nipple of the feeding bottle and have the infant suck it
D
Swab mycostatin on the affected areas
Question 18 Explanation:
Mycostatin suspension is given as swab. Never mix medications with food and formula.
Question 19
Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?
A
Cardiomyopathy
B
Polycythemia
C
Endocarditis
D
Low blood pressure
Question 19 Explanation:
The child with congenital heart disease develops polycythemia resulting from an inadequate mechanism to compensate for decreased oxygen saturation
Question 20
Cheska, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, KC, is in the clinic for her daughter’s immunizations. She expresses concern to the nurse that Shannon cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that, according to the Denver Developmental Screen, the median age for walking is:
A
14 months.
B
15 months.
C
10 months.
D
12 months.
Question 20 Explanation:
By 12 months, 50 percent of children can walk well.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pediatric Nursing 1 (EM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 20 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX Practice Exam for Pediatric Nursing 1 (EM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is the best method for performing a physical examination on a toddler
A
From least to most intrusive
B
From head to toe
C
From abdomen to toes, the to head
D
Distally to proximally
Question 1 Explanation:
When examining a toddler or any small child, the best way to perform the exam is from least to most intrusive. Starting at the head or abdomen is intrusive and should be avoided. Proceeding from distal to proximal is inappropriate at any age.
Question 2
Cheska, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, KC, is in the clinic for her daughter’s immunizations. She expresses concern to the nurse that Shannon cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that, according to the Denver Developmental Screen, the median age for walking is:
A
10 months.
B
15 months.
C
14 months.
D
12 months.
Question 2 Explanation:
By 12 months, 50 percent of children can walk well.
Question 3
Buck’s traction with a 10 lb. weight is securing a patient’s leg while she is waiting for surgery to repair a hip fracture. It is important to check circulation- sensation-movement:
A
every shift.
B
every 4 hours.
C
every day.
D
every 15 minutes.
Question 3 Explanation:
The patient can lose vascular status without the nurse being aware if left for more than 4 hours, yet checks should not be so frequent that the patient becomes anxious. Vital signs are generally checked q4h, at which time the CSM checks can easily be performed.
Question 4
Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?
A
Low blood pressure
B
Cardiomyopathy
C
Endocarditis
D
Polycythemia
Question 4 Explanation:
The child with congenital heart disease develops polycythemia resulting from an inadequate mechanism to compensate for decreased oxygen saturation
Question 5
Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
A
Streptococcal pneumonia
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
Haemophilus influenza
D
Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
Question 5 Explanation:
Rheumatic fever results as a delayed reaction to inadequately treated group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
Question 6
How does the nurse appropriately administer mycostatin suspension in an infant?
A
Swab mycostatin on the affected areas
B
Mix mycostatin with formula
C
Place mycostatin on the nipple of the feeding bottle and have the infant suck it
D
Have the infant drink water, and then administer mycostatin in a syringe
Question 6 Explanation:
Mycostatin suspension is given as swab. Never mix medications with food and formula.
Question 7
Which of the following would be inappropriate when administering chemotherapy to a child?
A
Monitoring the child for both general and specific adverse effects
B
Observing the child for 10 minutes to note for signs of anaphylaxis
C
Administering medication through a free-flowing intravenous line
D
Assessing for signs of infusion infiltration and irritation
Question 7 Explanation:
When administering chemotherapy, the nurse should observe for an anaphylactic reaction for 20 minutes and stop the medication if one is suspected. Chemotherapy is associated with both general and specific adverse effects, therefore close monitoring for them is important.
Question 8
Carol Smith is using bronchodilators for asthma. The side effects of these drugs that you need to monitor this patient for include:
A
blurred vision, tachycardia, hypertension, headache, insomnia, and oliguria.
B
restlessness, insomnia, blurred vision, hypertension, chest pain, and muscle weakness.
C
tachycardia, headache, dyspnea, temp . 101 F, and wheezing.
D
tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, heart palpitations, inability to sleep, restlessness, and seizures.
Question 8 Explanation:
Bronchodilators can produce the side effects listed in the correct answer for a short time after the patient begins using them.
Question 9
The nurse is assessing a newborn who had undergone vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings is least likely to be observed in a normal newborn?
A
respirations are irregular, abdominal, 30-60 bpm
B
uneven head shape
C
heart rate is 80 bpm
D
(+) moro reflex
Question 9 Explanation:
Normal heart rate of the newborn is 120 to 160 bpm. The remaining answer choices are normal assessment findings (uneven head shape is molding).
Question 10
The nurse is drawing blood from the diabetic patient for a glycosolated hemoglobin test. She explains to the woman that the test is used to determine:
A
her insulin level.
B
glucose levels over the past several months.
C
her usual fasting glucose level.
D
the highest glucose level in the past week.
Question 10 Explanation:
The glycosolated hemoglobin test measures glucose levels for the previous 3 to 4 months.
Question 11
Which of the following blood study results would the nurse expect as most likely when caring for the child with iron deficiency anemia?
A
Increased hemoglobin
B
Normal hematocrit
C
Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
D
Normal total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
Question 11 Explanation:
For the child with iron deficiency anemia, the blood study results most likely would reveal decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) which demonstrates microcytic anemia, decreased hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit and elevated total iron binding capacity.
Question 12
The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby check up. Which of the following observations would be of most concern?
A
The baby cannot say “mama” when he wants his mother.
B
The mother has not given him finger foods.
C
The child does not sit unsupported.
D
The baby cries whenever the mother goes out.
Question 12 Explanation:
Over 90% percent of babies can sit unsupported by nine months. Most babies cannot say “mama” in the sense that it refers to their mother at this time.
Question 13
The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test:
A
lumbar puncture.
B
throat and ear culture.
C
blood culture.
D
CAT scan.
Question 13 Explanation:
Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, the outer membrane of the brain. Since it is surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid, a lumbar puncture will help to identify the organism involved.
Question 14
Sally Kent., age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection exists. The best position to keep her in after the procedure is:
A
supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
B
semi-fowler’s so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained.
C
prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
D
supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
Question 14 Explanation:
Lying flat keeps the patient from having a “spinal headache.” Increasing the fluid intake will assist in replenishing the lost fluid during this time.
Question 15
Which of the following situations increase risk of lead poisoning in children?
A
playing plastic balls with other children
B
playing in the park with heavy traffic and with many vehicles passing by
C
playing with stuffed toys at home
D
playing sand in the park
Question 15 Explanation:
Lead poisoning may be caused by inhalation of dusk and smoke from leaded gas. It may also be caused by lead-based paint, soil, water (especially from plumbings of old houses).
Question 16
The twelve-year-old boy has fractured his arm because of a fall from his bike. After the injury has been casted, the nurse knows it is most important to perform all of the following assessments on the area distal to the injury except:
A
capillary refill.
B
finger movement
C
skin integrity
D
radial and ulnar pulse.
Question 16 Explanation:
Capillary refill, pulses, and skin temperature and color are indicative of intact circulation and absence of compartment syndrome. Skin integrity is less important.
Question 17
At the community center, the nurse leads an adolescent health information group, which often expands into other areas of discussion. She knows that these youths are trying to find out “who they are,” and discussion often focuses on which directions they want to take in school and life, as well as peer relationships. According to Erikson, this stage is known as:
A
career experimentation.
B
identity vs. role confusion.
C
adolescent rebellion.
D
relationship testing
Question 17 Explanation:
During this period, which lasts up to the age of 18-21 years, the individual develops a sense of “self.” Peers have a major big influence over behavior, and the major decision is to determine a vocational goal.
Question 18
The nurse answers a call bell and finds a frightened mother whose child, the patient, is having a seizure. Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A
The nurse should insert a padded tongue blade in the patient’s mouth to prevent the child from swallowing or choking on his tongue.
B
The nurse should help the mother restrain the child to prevent him from injuring himself.
C
The nurse should call the operator to page for seizure assistance.
D
The nurse should clear the area and position the client safely.
Question 18 Explanation:
The primary role of the nurse when a patient has a seizure is to protect the patient from harming him or herself.
Question 19
A mother tells the nurse that she is very worried because her 2-year old child does not finish his meals. What should the nurse advise the mother?
A
make the child seat with the family in the dining room until he finishes his meal
B
provide quiet environment for the child before meals
C
put the child on a chair and feed him
D
do not give snacks to the child before meals
Question 19 Explanation:
If the child is hungry he/she more likely would finish his meals. Therefore, the mother should be advised not to give snacks to the child. The child is a “busy toddler.” He/she will not able to keep still for a long time.
Question 20
An inborn error of metabolism that causes premature destruction of RBC?
A
Celiac Disease
B
Phenylketonuria
C
Hemocystinuria
D
G6PD
Question 20 Explanation:
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is an X-linked recessive hereditary disease characterised by abnormally low levels of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (abbreviated G6PD or G6PDH), a metabolic enzyme involved in the pentose phosphate pathway, especially important in red blood cell metabolism.
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Text Mode – Text version of the exam
1. Which of the following would be inappropriate when administering chemotherapy to a child?
Monitoring the child for both general and specific adverse effects
Observing the child for 10 minutes to note for signs of anaphylaxis
Administering medication through a free-flowing intravenous line
Assessing for signs of infusion infiltration and irritation
2. Which of the following is the best method for performing a physical examination on a toddler
From head to toe
Distally to proximally
From abdomen to toes, the to head
From least to most intrusive
3. Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
Streptococcal pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
4. Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?
Polycythemia
Cardiomyopathy
Endocarditis
Low blood pressure
5. How does the nurse appropriately administer mycostatin suspension in an infant?
Have the infant drink water, and then administer mycostatin in a syringe
Place mycostatin on the nipple of the feeding bottle and have the infant suck it
Mix mycostatin with formula
Swab mycostatin on the affected areas
6. A mother tells the nurse that she is very worried because her 2-year old child does not finish his meals. What should the nurse advise the mother?
make the child seat with the family in the dining room until he finishes his meal
provide quiet environment for the child before meals
do not give snacks to the child before meals
put the child on a chair and feed him
7. The nurse is assessing a newborn who had undergone vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings is least likely to be observed in a normal newborn?
uneven head shape
respirations are irregular, abdominal, 30-60 bpm
(+) moro reflex
heart rate is 80 bpm
8. Which of the following situations increase risk of lead poisoning in children?
playing in the park with heavy traffic and with many vehicles passing by
playing sand in the park
playing plastic balls with other children
playing with stuffed toys at home
9. An inborn error of metabolism that causes premature destruction of RBC?
G6PD
Hemocystinuria
Phenylketonuria
Celiac Disease
10. Which of the following blood study results would the nurse expect as most likely when caring for the child with iron deficiency anemia?
Increased hemoglobin
Normal hematocrit
Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Normal total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
11. The nurse answers a call bell and finds a frightened mother whose child, the patient, is having a seizure. Which of these actions should the nurse take?
The nurse should insert a padded tongue blade in the patient’s mouth to prevent the child from swallowing or choking on his tongue.
The nurse should help the mother restrain the child to prevent him from injuring himself.
The nurse should call the operator to page for seizure assistance.
The nurse should clear the area and position the client safely.
12. At the community center, the nurse leads an adolescent health information group, which often expands into other areas of discussion. She knows that these youths are trying to find out “who they are,” and discussion often focuses on which directions they want to take in school and life, as well as peer relationships. According to Erikson, this stage is known as:
identity vs. role confusion.
adolescent rebellion.
career experimentation.
relationship testing
13. The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby check up. Which of the following observations would be of most concern?
The baby cannot say “mama” when he wants his mother.
The mother has not given him finger foods.
The child does not sit unsupported.
The baby cries whenever the mother goes out.
14. Cheska, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, KC, is in the clinic for her daughter’s immunizations. She expresses concern to the nurse that Shannon cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that, according to the Denver Developmental Screen, the median age for walking is:
12 months.
15 months.
10 months.
14 months.
15. Sally Kent., age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection exists. The best position to keep her in after the procedure is:
prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
semi-fowler’s so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained.
supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
on her right sides to encourage return of CSF
16. Buck’s traction with a 10 lb. weight is securing a patient’s leg while she is waiting for surgery to repair a hip fracture. It is important to check circulation- sensation-movement:
every shift.
every day.
every 4 hours.
every 15 minutes.
17. Carol Smith is using bronchodilators for asthma. The side effects of these drugs that you need to monitor this patient for include:
tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, heart palpitations, inability to sleep, restlessness, and seizures.
tachycardia, headache, dyspnea, temp . 101 F, and wheezing.
blurred vision, tachycardia, hypertension, headache, insomnia, and oliguria.
restlessness, insomnia, blurred vision, hypertension, chest pain, and muscle weakness.
18. The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test:
blood culture.
throat and ear culture.
CAT scan.
lumbar puncture.
19. The nurse is drawing blood from the diabetic patient for a glycosolated hemoglobin test. She explains to the woman that the test is used to determine:
the highest glucose level in the past week.
her insulin level.
glucose levels over the past several months.
her usual fasting glucose level.
20. The twelve-year-old boy has fractured his arm because of a fall from his bike. After the injury has been casted, the nurse knows it is most important to perform all of the following assessments on the area distal to the injury except:
capillary refill.
radial and ulnar pulse.
finger movement
skin integrity
Answers and Rationales
B. When administering chemotherapy, the nurse should observe for an anaphylactic reaction for 20 minutes and stop the medication if one is suspected. Chemotherapy is associated with both general and specific adverse effects, therefore close monitoring for them is important.
D. When examining a toddler or any small child, the best way to perform the exam is from least to most intrusive. Starting at the head or abdomen is intrusive and should be avoided. Proceeding from distal to proximal is inappropriate at any age.
C. Rheumatic fever results as a delayed reaction to inadequately treated group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
A. The child with congenital heart disease develops polycythemia resulting from an inadequate mechanism to compensate for decreased oxygen saturation
D. Mycostatin suspension is given as swab. Never mix medications with food and formula.
C. If the child is hungry he/she more likely would finish his meals. Therefore, the mother should be advised not to give snacks to the child. The child is a “busy toddler.” He/she will not able to keep still for a long time.
D. Normal heart rate of the newborn is 120 to 160 bpm. Choices A, B, and C are normal assessment findings (uneven head shape is molding).
A. Lead poisoning may be caused by inhalation of dusk and smoke from leaded gas. It may also be caused by lead-based paint, soil, water (especially from plumbings of old houses).
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is an X-linked recessive hereditary disease characterised by abnormally low levels of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (abbreviated G6PD or G6PDH), a metabolic enzyme involved in the pentose phosphate pathway, especially important in red blood cell metabolism.
C. For the child with iron deficiency anemia, the blood study results most likely would reveal decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) which demonstrates microcytic anemia, decreased hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit and elevated total iron binding capacity.
D. The primary role of the nurse when a patient has a seizure is to protect the patient from harming him or herself.
A. During this period, which lasts up to the age of 18-21 years, the individual develops a sense of “self.” Peers have a major big influence over behavior, and the major decision is to determine a vocational goal.
C. Over 90% percent of babies can sit unsupported by nine months. Most babies cannot say “mama” in the sense that it refers to their mother at this time.
A. By 12 months, 50 percent of children can walk well.
C. Lying flat keeps the patient from having a “spinal headache.” Increasing the fluid intake will assist in replenishing the lost fluid during this time.
C. The patient can lose vascular status without the nurse being aware if left for more than 4 hours, yet checks should not be so frequent that the patient becomes anxious. Vital signs are generally checked q4h, at which time the CSM checks can easily be performed.
A. Bronchodilators can produce the side effects listed in answer choice (A) for a short time after the patient begins using them.
D. Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, the outer membrane of the brain. Since it is surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid, a lumbar puncture will help to identify the organism involved.
C. The glycosolated hemoglobin test measures glucose levels for the previous 3 to 4 months.
D. Capillary refill, pulses, and skin temperature and color are indicative of intact circulation and absence of compartment syndrome. Skin integrity is less important.