Notes
Description
- A post-term pregnancy is one that extends beyond 42 weeks’ gestation. The post-term infant may be LGA, AGA, SGA, or dysmature, depending on placental function.
Etiology
- The cause of prolonged pregnancy is unknown. Factors associated with postmaturity include anencephaly and trisomy 16 to 18.
Pathophysiolgy
- If the placenta continues to function well, the fetus will continue to grow, which results in an LGA infant who may manifest problems such as birth trauma and hypoglycemia.
- If placental function decreases, the fetus may not receive adequate nutrition. The fetus will utilize its subcutaneous fat stores for energy. Wasting of subcutaneous fat occurs, resulting in fetal dysmaturity syndrome. There are three stages of fetal dysmaturity syndrome.
- Stage 1- Chronic placental insufficiency
-
- Dry, cracked, peeling, loose, and wrinkled skin
- Malnourished appearance
- Open-eyed and alert baby
- Stage 2– Acute placental insufficiency
-
- All features of stage 1 except point iii
- Meconium staining
- Perinatal depression
- Stage 3– Subacute placental insufficiency
-
- Findings of stage 1 and 2 except point iii
- Green staining of skin, nails, cord, and placental membrane
- A higher risk of fetal inrapartum or neonatal death
- The newborn is at increased risk for developing complications related to compromised uteroplacental perfusion and hypoxia (e.g., meconium aspiration syndrome MAS)
- Chronic intrauterine hypoxia causes increased fetal erythropoietin and red blood cell production resulting in polycythemia.
- Post-term infants are susceptible to hypoglycemia because of the rapid use of glycogen stores.
Assessment Findings
Clinical manifestations include:
- A long, thin newborn with wasted appearance, parchment-like skin, and meconium-stained skin, nails, and umbilical cor. Fingernails are long and lanugo is absent.
- Meconium aspiration syndrome is manifested by fetal hypoxia, meconium staining of amniotic fluid, respiratory distress at delivery, and meconium-stained vocal cords.
Nursing Management
1. Manage meconium aspiration syndrome.
- Suction the infant’s mouth and nares while the head is on the perineum and before the first breath is taken to prevent aspiration of meconium that is in the airway.
- Once the infant is dry and on the warmer, intubate with direct tracheal suctioning.
- Perform chest physiotherapy with suctioning to remove excess meconium and secretions.
- Provide supplemental oxygen and respiratory support as needed.
2. Obtain serial blood glucose measurements.
3. Provide early feeding to prevent hypoglycemia, if not contraindicated by respiratory status.
4. Maintain skin integrity.
- Keep the skin clean and dry.
- Avoid the use of powders, creams, and lotions.
- Avoid the use of tape.
Exam
Maternal & Child Practice Exam 11 (Newborn Care) PM
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Question 1 |
After reviewing the client’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
A | Hypoglycemia |
B | Jitteriness |
C | Tachycardia |
D | Respiratory depression |
Question 1 Explanation:
Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and adverse neonatal effects are respiratory depression, hypotonia, and Bradycardia.
Question 2 |
A nurse prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the nurse why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by the nurse would be:
A | “The vitamin K will protect your infant from being jaundiced.” |
B | “Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal bleeding.” |
C | “Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the bowel.” |
D | “You infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity.” |
Question 2 Explanation:
Vitamin K is necessary for the body to synthesize coagulation factors. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn infant to prevent abnormal bleeding. Newborn infants are vitamin K deficient because the bowel does not have the bacteria necessary for synthesizing fat-soluble vitamin K. The infant’s bowel does not have support the production of vitamin K until bacteria adequately colonizes it by food ingestion.
Question 3 |
Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle site?
A | Biceps |
B | Vastus lateralis |
C | Deltoid |
D | Triceps |
Question 4 |
The nurse is aware that a neonate of a mother with diabetes is at risk for what complication?
A | Anemia |
B | Nitrogen loss |
C | Thrombosis |
D | Hypoglycemia |
Question 4 Explanation:
Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for hypoglycemia due to increased insulin levels. During gestation, an increased amount of glucose is transferred to the fetus across the placenta. The neonate’s liver cannot initially adjust to the changing glucose levels after birth. This may result in an overabundance of insulin in the neonate, resulting in hypoglycemia.
Question 5 |
A neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum. Which statement is correct about this condition?
A | It’s a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum |
B | It doesn’t cross the cranial suture line |
C | It involves swelling of tissue over the presenting part of the presenting head |
D | It usually resolves in 3-6 weeks |
Question 5 Explanation:
Caput succedaneum is the swelling of tissue over the presenting part of the fetal scalp due to sustained pressure; it resolves in 3-4 days.
Question 6 |
When performing nursing care for a neonate after a birth, which intervention has the highest nursing priority?
A | Obtain a dextrostix |
B | Cover the neonates head with a cap |
C | Give the vitamin K injection |
D | Give the initial bath |
Question 6 Explanation:
Covering the neonates head with a cap helps prevent cold stress due to excessive evaporative heat loss from the neonate’s wet head. Vitamin K can be given up to 4 hours after birth.
Question 7 |
A postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse provides which most appropriate instructions to the mother?
A | Stop the breast feedings and switch to bottle-feeding permanently |
B | Feed the newborn infant less frequently |
C | Switch to bottle feeding the baby for 2 weeks |
D | Continue to breast-feed every 2-4 hours |
Question 7 Explanation:
Breast feeding should be initiated within 2 hours after birth and every 2-4 hours thereafter. The other options are not necessary.
Question 8 |
A nurse is assessing a newborn infant following circumcision and notes that the circumcised area is red with a small amount of bloody drainage. Which of the following nursing actions would be most appropriate?
A | Circle the amount of bloody drainage on the dressing and reassess in 30 minutes |
B | Document the findings |
C | Reinforce the dressing |
D | Contact the physician |
Question 8 Explanation:
A yellow exudate may be noted in 24 hours, and this is a part of normal healing. The nurse would expect that the area would be red with a small amount of bloody drainage. If the bleeding is excessive, the nurse would apply gentle pressure with sterile gauze. If bleeding is not controlled, then the blood vessel may need to be ligated, and the nurse would contact the physician. Because the findings identified in the question are normal, the nurse would document the assessment.
Question 9 |
When performing an assessment on a neonate, which assessment finding is most suggestive of hypothermia?
A | Metabolic alkalosis |
B | Bradycardia |
C | Shivering |
D | Hyperglycemia |
Question 9 Explanation:
Hypothermic neonates become bradycardic proportional to the degree of core temperature. Hypoglycemia is seen in hypothermic neonates.
Question 10 |
A nurse in a newborn nursery receives a phone call to prepare for the admission of a 43-week-gestation newborn with Apgar scores of 1 and 4. In planning for the admission of this infant, the nurse’s highest priority should be to:
A | Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet |
B | Turn on the apnea and cardiorespiratory monitors |
C | Set up the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water |
D | Set the radiant warmer control temperature at 36.5Âş C (97.6ÂşF) |
Question 10 Explanation:
The highest priority on admission to the nursery for a newborn with low Apgar scores is airway, which would involve preparing respiratory resuscitation equipment. The other options are also important, although they are of lower priority.
Question 11 |
While assessing a 2-hour old neonate, the nurse observes the neonate to have acrocyanosis. Which of the following nursing actions should be performed initially?
A | Immediately take the newborn’s temperature according to hospital policy |
B | Do nothing because acrocyanosis is normal in the neonate |
C | Activate the code blue or emergency system |
D | Notify the physician of the need for a cardiac consult |
Question 11 Explanation:
Acrocyanosis, or bluish discoloration of the hands and feet in the neonate (also called peripheral cyanosis), is a normal finding and shouldn’t last more than 24 hours after birth.
Question 12 |
A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment signs if noted in the newborn infant would alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome?
A | The presence of a barrel chest with grunting |
B | Acrocyanosis and grunting |
C | Tachypnea and retractions |
D | Hypotension and Bradycardia |
Question 12 Explanation:
The infant with respiratory distress syndrome may present with signs of cyanosis, tachypnea or apnea, nasal flaring, chest wall retractions, or audible grunts.
Question 13 |
A nurse is assessing a newborn infant who was born to a mother who is addicted to drugs. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to note during the assessment of this newborn?
A | Lethargy |
B | Sleepiness |
C | Cuddles when being held |
D | Incessant crying |
Question 13 Explanation:
A newborn infant born to a woman using drugs is irritable. The infant is overloaded easily by sensory stimulation. The infant may cry incessantly and posture rather than cuddle when being held.
Question 14 |
The nurse is aware that a healthy newborn’s respirations are:
A | Irregular, abdominal, 30-60 per minute, shallow |
B | Regular, initiated by the chest wall, 40-60 per minute, shallow |
C | Regular, abdominal, 40-50 per minute, deep |
D | Irregular, initiated by chest wall, 30-60 per minute, deep |
Question 14 Explanation:
Normally the newborn’s breathing is abdominal and irregular in depth and rhythm; the rate ranges from 30-60 breaths per minute.
Question 15 |
When newborns have been on formula for 36-48 hours, they should have a:
A | Test for necrotizing enterocolitis |
B | Heel stick for blood glucose level |
C | Screening for PKU |
D | Vitamin K injection |
Question 15 Explanation:
By now the newborn will have ingested an ample amount of the amino acid phenylalanine, which, if not metabolized because of a lack of the liver enzyme, can deposit injurious metabolites into the bloodstream and brain; early detection can determine if the liver enzyme is absent.
Question 16 |
Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?
A | Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract |
B | Helps the lungs remain expanded after the initiation of breathing |
C | Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways |
D | Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern |
Question 16 Explanation:
Surfactant works by reducing surface tension in the lung. Surfactant allows the lung to remain slightly expanded, decreasing the amount of work required for inspiration.
Question 17 |
When attempting to interact with a neonate experiencing drug withdrawal, which behavior would indicate that the neonate is willing to interact?
A | Gaze aversion |
B | Hiccups |
C | Quiet alert state |
D | Yawning |
Question 17 Explanation:
When caring for a neonate experiencing drug withdrawal, the nurse needs to be alert for distress signals from the neonate. Stimuli should be introduced one at a time when the neonate is in a quiet and alert state. Gaze aversion, yawning, sneezing, hiccups, and body arching are distress signals that the neonate cannot handle stimuli at that time.
Question 18 |
Which condition or treatment best ensures lung maturity in an infant?
A | Meconium in the amniotic fluid |
B | Lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio more than 2:1 |
C | Glucocorticoid treatment just before delivery |
D | Absence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid |
Question 18 Explanation:
Lecithin and sphingomyelin are phospholipids that help compose surfactant in the lungs; lecithin peaks at 36 weeks and sphingomyelin concentrations remain stable.
Question 19 |
A healthy term neonate born by C-section was admitted to the transitional nursery 30 minutes ago and placed under a radiant warmer. The neonate has an axillary temperature of 99.5*F, a respiratory rate of 80 breaths/minute, and a heel stick glucose value of 60 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse take?
A | Administer an oral glucose feeding of 10% dextrose in water |
B | Increase the temperature setting on the radiant warmer |
C | Wrap the neonate warmly and place her in an open crib |
D | Obtain an order for IV fluid administration |
Question 19 Explanation:
Assessment findings indicate that the neonate is in respiratory distress—most likely from transient tachypnea, which is common after cesarean delivery. A neonate with a rate of 80 breaths a minute shouldn’t be fed but should receive IV fluids until the respiratory rate returns to normal. To allow for close observation for worsening respiratory distress, the neonate should be kept unclothed in the radiant warmer.
Question 20 |
A baby is born precipitously in the ER. The nurses initial action should be to:
A | Establish an airway for the baby |
B | Move mother and baby to the birthing unit |
C | Ascertain the condition of the fundus |
D | Quickly tie and cut the umbilical cord |
Question 20 Explanation:
The nurse should position the baby with head lower than chest and rub the infant’s back to stimulate crying to promote oxygenation. There is no haste in cutting the cord.
Question 21 |
Which neonatal behavior is most commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
A | Hypoactivity |
B | High birth weight |
C | Poor wake and sleep patterns |
D | High threshold of stimulation |
Question 21 Explanation:
Altered sleep patterns are caused by disturbances in the CNS from alcohol exposure in utero. Hyperactivity is a characteristic generally noted. Low birth weight is a physical defect seen in neonates with FAS. Neonates with FAS generally have a low threshold for stimulation.
Question 22 |
A nurse on the newborn nursery floor is caring for a neonate. On assessment the infant is exhibiting signs of cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and grunting. Respiratory distress syndrome is diagnosed, and the physician prescribes surfactant replacement therapy. The nurse would prepare to administer this therapy by:
A | Intramuscular injection |
B | Intravenous injection |
C | Instillation of the preparation into the lungs through an endotracheal tube |
D | Subcutaneous injection |
Question 22 Explanation:
The aim of therapy in RDS is to support the disease until the disease runs its course with the subsequent development of surfactant. The infant may benefit from surfactant replacement therapy. In surfactant replacement, an exogenous surfactant preparation is instilled into the lungs through an endotracheal tube.
Question 23 |
A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin ointment into the eyes if a neonate. The instructor determines that the student needs to research this procedure further if the student states:
A | “I will cleanse the neonate’s eyes before instilling ointment.” |
B | “Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed until an hour or so after birth so that eye contact and parent-infant attachment and bonding can occur.” |
C | “I will instill the eye ointment into each of the neonate’s conjunctival sacs within one hour after birth.” |
D | “I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment.” |
Question 23 Explanation:
Eye prophylaxis protects the neonate against Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. The eyes are not flushed after instillation of the medication because the flush will wash away the administered medication.
Question 24 |
A woman delivers a 3.250 g neonate at 42 weeks’ gestation. Which physical finding is expected during an examination if this neonate?
A | Absence of sole creases |
B | Leathery, cracked, and wrinkled skin |
C | Breast bud of 1-2 mm in diameter |
D | Abundant lanugo |
Question 24 Explanation:
Neonatal skin thickens with maturity and is often peeling by post term.
Question 25 |
A client with group AB blood whose husband has group O has just given birth. The major sign of ABO blood incompatibility in the neonate is which complication or test result?
A | Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life |
B | Negative Coombs test |
C | Bleeding from the nose and ear |
D | Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life |
Question 25 Explanation:
The neonate with ABO blood incompatibility with its mother will have jaundice (pathologic) within the first 24 hours of life. The neonate would have a positive Coombs test result.
Question 26 |
A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose, which the nurse knows are caused by retained sebaceous secretions. When charting this observation, the nurse identifies it as:
A | Milia |
B | Mongolian spots |
C | Whiteheads |
D | Lanugo |
Question 26 Explanation:
Milia occur commonly, are not indicative of any illness, and eventually disappear.
Question 27 |
When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital signs in the following sequence:
A | Respirations, temperature, pulse |
B | Pulse, respirations, temperature |
C | Respirations, pulse, temperature |
D | Temperature, pulse, respirations |
Question 27 Explanation:
This sequence is least disturbing. Touching with the stethoscope and inserting the thermometer increase anxiety and elevate vital signs.
Question 28 |
The most common neonatal sepsis and meningitis infections seen within 24 hours after birth are caused by which organism?
A | Candida albicans |
B | Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci |
C | Escherichia coli |
D | Chlamydia trachomatis |
Question 28 Explanation:
Transmission of Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci to the fetus results in respiratory distress that can rapidly lead to septic shock.
Question 29 |
A client has just given birth at 42 weeks’ gestation. When assessing the neonate, which physical finding is expected?
A | Desquamation of the epidermis |
B | Vernix caseosa covering the body |
C | A sleepy, lethargic baby |
D | Lanugo covering the body |
Question 29 Explanation:
Postdate fetuses lose the vernix caseosa, and the epidermis may become desquamated. These neonates are usually very alert. Lanugo is missing in the postdate neonate.
Question 30 |
Within 3 minutes after birth the normal heart rate of the infant may range between:
A | 100 and 130 |
B | 100 and 180 |
C | 120 and 160 |
D | 130 and 170 |
Question 30 Explanation:
The heart rate varies with activity; crying will increase the rate, whereas deep sleep will lower it; a rate between 120 and 160 is expected.
Question 31 |
A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by:
A | Closing the doors to the room |
B | Warming the crib pad |
C | Turning on the overhead radiant warmer |
D | Drying the infant in a warm blanket |
Question 31 Explanation:
Evaporation of moisture from a wet body dissipates heat along with the moisture. Keeping the newborn dry by drying the wet newborn infant will prevent hypothermia via evaporation.
Question 32 |
Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for which complication following birth?
A | Pneumothorax |
B | Microcephaly |
C | Macrosomia |
D | Atelectasis |
Question 32 Explanation:
Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at increased risk for macrosomia (excessive fetal growth) as a result of the combination of the increased supply of maternal glucose and an increase in fetal insulin.
Question 33 |
The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the:
A | Heart rate |
B | Evaluation of the Moro reflex |
C | Respiratory rate |
D | Presence of meconium |
Question 33 Explanation:
The heart rate is vital for life and is the most critical observation in Apgar scoring. Respiratory effect rather than rate is included in the Apgar score; the rate is very erratic.
Question 34 |
When teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the nurse would include which information?
A | Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing |
B | Keep the cord dry and open to air |
C | Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath |
D | Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change |
Question 34 Explanation:
Keeping the cord dry and open to air helps reduce infection and hastens drying.
Question 35 |
By keeping the nursery temperature warm and wrapping the neonate in blankets, the nurse is preventing which type of heat loss?
A | Evaporation |
B | Radiation |
C | Convection |
D | Conduction |
Question 35 Explanation:
Convection heat loss is the flow of heat from the body surface to the cooler air.
Question 36 |
The nurse decides on a teaching plan for a new mother and her infant. The plan should include:
A | Showing by example and explanation how to care for the infant |
B | Supplying the emotional support to the mother and encouraging her independence |
C | Setting up a schedule for teaching the mother how to care for her baby |
D | Discussing the matter with her in a non-threatening manner |
Question 36 Explanation:
Teaching the mother by example is a non-threatening approach that allows her to proceed at her own pace.
Question 37 |
The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within 3 minutes of birth may be as high as:
A | 50 |
B | 80 |
C | 60 |
D | 100 |
Question 37 Explanation:
The respiratory rate is associated with activity and can be as rapid as 60 breaths per minute; over 60 breaths per minute are considered tachypneic in the infant.
Question 38 |
To help limit the development of hyperbilirubinemia in the neonate, the plan of care should include:
A | Instituting phototherapy for 30 minutes every 6 hours |
B | Supplementing breastfeeding with glucose water during the first 24 hours |
C | Substituting breastfeeding for formula during the 2nd day after birth |
D | Monitoring for the passage of meconium each shift |
Question 38 Explanation:
Bilirubin is excreted via the GI tract; if meconium is retained, the bilirubin is reabsorbed.
Question 39 |
A nurse in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. The nurse is preparing to measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would most appropriately:
A | Place the tape measure at the back of the infant’s head, wrap around across the ears, and measure across the infant’s mouth. |
B | Place the tape measure under the infants head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front just above the eyes |
C | Wrap the tape measure around the infant’s head and measure just above the eyebrows. |
D | Place the tape measure under the infants head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above the eyes |
Question 39 Explanation:
To measure the head circumference, the nurse should place the tape measure under the infant’s head, wrap the tape around the occiput, and measure just above the eyebrows so that the largest area of the occiput is included.
Question 40 |
A mother of a term neonate asks what the thick, white, cheesy coating is on his skin. Which correctly describes this finding?
A | Nevus flammeus |
B | Lanugo |
C | Milia |
D | Vernix |
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