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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology: Respiratory and Gastrointestinal Medications (PM)*
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Question 1
A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of theophylline?
A
Cardiac disorder
B
Diabetes
C
Renal disease
D
Hepatic disease
Question 1 Explanation:
A client with a heart condition may experience dangerous stimulation from this drug. Theophylline should be administered cautiously with all the other choices, but consequences are most dangerous or possibly fatal for clients with a heart condition.
Question 2
When administering the methylxanthine theophylline, the nurse can expect:
A
Decreased pulmonary function
B
Increased pulmonary function
C
Increased residual volume
D
Decreased tidal volume
Question 2 Explanation:
Theophylline will improve ventilation so there will be an overall improvement of pulmonary measurements. Other choices are the opposite of what will actually occur with theophylline administration.
Question 3
Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effect?
A
metoclopramide
B
cimetidine
C
Tagamet
D
famotidine
Question 3 Explanation:
This is the only drug among the choices that is indicated to prevent nausea.
Question 4
Which of the following drugs will reduce the effectiveness of sucralfate?
A
ranitidine
B
Carafate
C
metoclopramide
D
meclizine
Question 4 Explanation:
Ranitidine decreases the effectiveness of sucralfate because it decreases the acid content of gastric secretion. Choice B is the trade name for sucralfate. Choice C is a gastric stimulant that does not alter pH. Choice D is an antihistamine and its GI effect is antiemetic.
Question 5
Which of the following may be used for a bowel preparation and is not recommended for treatment of constipation?
A
Correctol
B
Fiberall
C
mineral oil
D
castor oil
Question 5 Explanation:
Castor oil is not recommended for treatment of constipation because it causes such severe abdominal pain.
Question 6
Nurse Rita is giving instructions to her client who is taking antihistamine. Which of the following nurse teachings is appropriate for the client?
A
Avoid ingesting alcohol.
B
Be aware that you may need to take a decongestant.
C
Be aware that you may have increased saliva.
D
Expect a relief in 24 hours.
Question 6 Explanation:
Because alcohol and antihistamines have sedating properties, concurrent administration of these drugs should be avoided. Antihistamines and decongestants are often given together. Dry mouth is a common side effect, not increased salivation. Not all antihistamines last 24 hours.
Question 7
Which histamine-2 antagonist is associated with the most drug interactions?
A
ranitidine
B
cimetidine
C
Prilosec
D
nizatidine
Question 7 Explanation:
Cimetidine was the first histamine-2 antagonist developed and is associated with the most toxic drug interactions of the group.
Question 8
Daniel has vertigo, which antihistamine is best for his condition?
A
Terfenadine
B
Meclizine
C
Hydrocodone
D
Guaifenesin
Question 8 Explanation:
Meclizine (Antivert) is given for vertigo and motion sickness. Choices C and D are not antihistamines. Choice A is an antihistamine, but meclizine is the standard drug in the treatment of vertigo.
Question 9
The effects of theophylline may be increased by:
A
Phenobarbital
B
Phenytoin
C
Rifampin
D
Cimetidine
Question 9 Explanation:
Cimetidine will increase the effects of theophylline.
Question 10
Which category of drugs prevents/treats constipation by the osmotic drawing of water from extravascular space to intestinal lumen?
A
Stimulants
B
Bulk-forming agents
C
Hyperosmotic agents
D
Lubricants
Question 10 Explanation:
Hyperosmotic agents change the osmotic gradient between the intestine and extravascular space causing water to move into the intestinal lumen and balance the gradient.
Question 11
Which of the following statements describes the action of antacids?
A
Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
B
Antacids block the production of gastric acid.
C
Antacids block dopamine.
D
Antacids enhance action of acetylcholine.
Question 11 Explanation:
Antacids act to bring the pH above 3. Other choices are incorrect because they describe actions of antiacid drugs.
Question 12
Hydrochloric acid secretion is blocked by which of the following category of drugs?
A
antacids
B
gastric stimulants
C
histamine-2 antagonists
D
antihistamines
Question 12 Explanation:
This is the only category of drugs that reduces the volume of secretions.
Question 13
Extrapyramidal symptoms are a side effect of which of the following drugs?
A
ranitidine
B
omeprazole
C
famotidine
D
metoclopramide
Question 13 Explanation:
A side effect of metoclopramide is EPS.
Question 14
Raul, a 20-year-old student, used to buy OTC drugs whenever he feels sick. Which of the following statements best describes the danger of self-medication with over-the-counter drugs?
A
Clients are not aware of the action of over-the-counter drugs.
B
Clients are not aware of the side effects of over-the-counter drugs.
C
Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription.
D
Clients do not realize the effects of over-the-counter drugs.
Question 14 Explanation:
This choice is correct because it includes the other three risks noted in choices A, B, and D.
Question 15
To evaluate the effectiveness of theophylline therapy, which of the following laboratory values must be drawn?
A
Glucose
B
Hematocrit
C
Potassium
D
Theophylline levels
Question 15 Explanation:
Theophylline levels must be drawn to determine if the drug is present in therapeutic amounts in the client’s serum.
Question 16
Shenaya will be having her exam in pharmacology tomorrow. She should be aware that antitussive is indicated to:
A
encourage removal of secretions through coughing.
B
relieve rhinitis.
C
control a productive cough.
D
relieve a dry cough.
Question 16 Explanation:
An antitussive is a cough suppressant. Choices A and C describe the action of an expectorant. Choice D describes the action of a decongestant.
Question 17
Which of the following categories is used for diarrhea and constipation?
A
Bulk-forming agents
B
Intestinal flora modifiers
C
Cascara
D
Milk of Magnesia
Question 17 Explanation:
Bulk-forming agents are used for diarrhea and constipation.
Question 18
The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to:
A
restrict fluids.
B
increase fluids.
C
avoid vaporizers.
D
take antihistamines.
Question 18 Explanation:
Increasing fluids will help liquefy secretions and facilitate removal.
Question 19
A client needs rapid cleansing of the bowel, which category is best used?
A
Bacid
B
Bulk-forming agent
C
Saline laxatives with magnesium
D
Intestinal flora modifiers
Question 19 Explanation:
Saline laxatives are the best agents for rapid bowel cleansing. Bacid is an intestinal flora modifier. Bulk-forming agents will not produce rapid cleansing. Intestinal flora modifiers will not not produce rapid cleansing as well.
Question 20
Which of the following is a bulk-forming agent?
A
glycerin
B
lactulose
C
FiberCon
D
Milk of Magnesia
Question 20 Explanation:
FiberCon is the bulk-forming agent. Choices A and B are incorrect because they are hyperosmotic agents. Choice D, meanwhile, is a saline laxative.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology: Respiratory and Gastrointestinal Medications (EM)*
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You have 20 mins to answer the exam.
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology: Respiratory and Gastrointestinal Medications (EM)*.
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following categories is used for diarrhea and constipation?
A
Bulk-forming agents
B
Intestinal flora modifiers
C
Cascara
D
Milk of Magnesia
Question 1 Explanation:
Bulk-forming agents are used for diarrhea and constipation.
Question 2
When administering the methylxanthine theophylline, the nurse can expect:
A
Decreased pulmonary function
B
Increased pulmonary function
C
Increased residual volume
D
Decreased tidal volume
Question 2 Explanation:
Theophylline will improve ventilation so there will be an overall improvement of pulmonary measurements. Other choices are the opposite of what will actually occur with theophylline administration.
Question 3
Extrapyramidal symptoms are a side effect of which of the following drugs?
A
ranitidine
B
omeprazole
C
famotidine
D
metoclopramide
Question 3 Explanation:
A side effect of metoclopramide is EPS.
Question 4
Which of the following drugs will reduce the effectiveness of sucralfate?
A
ranitidine
B
Carafate
C
metoclopramide
D
meclizine
Question 4 Explanation:
Ranitidine decreases the effectiveness of sucralfate because it decreases the acid content of gastric secretion. Choice B is the trade name for sucralfate. Choice C is a gastric stimulant that does not alter pH. Choice D is an antihistamine and its GI effect is antiemetic.
Question 5
Which category of drugs prevents/treats constipation by the osmotic drawing of water from extravascular space to intestinal lumen?
A
Stimulants
B
Bulk-forming agents
C
Hyperosmotic agents
D
Lubricants
Question 5 Explanation:
Hyperosmotic agents change the osmotic gradient between the intestine and extravascular space causing water to move into the intestinal lumen and balance the gradient.
Question 6
The effects of theophylline may be increased by:
A
Phenobarbital
B
Phenytoin
C
Rifampin
D
Cimetidine
Question 6 Explanation:
Cimetidine will increase the effects of theophylline.
Question 7
Which histamine-2 antagonist is associated with the most drug interactions?
A
ranitidine
B
cimetidine
C
Prilosec
D
nizatidine
Question 7 Explanation:
Cimetidine was the first histamine-2 antagonist developed and is associated with the most toxic drug interactions of the group.
Question 8
The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to:
A
restrict fluids.
B
increase fluids.
C
avoid vaporizers.
D
take antihistamines.
Question 8 Explanation:
Increasing fluids will help liquefy secretions and facilitate removal.
Question 9
A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of theophylline?
A
Cardiac disorder
B
Diabetes
C
Renal disease
D
Hepatic disease
Question 9 Explanation:
A client with a heart condition may experience dangerous stimulation from this drug. Theophylline should be administered cautiously with all the other choices, but consequences are most dangerous or possibly fatal for clients with a heart condition.
Question 10
Raul, a 20-year-old student, used to buy OTC drugs whenever he feels sick. Which of the following statements best describes the danger of self-medication with over-the-counter drugs?
A
Clients are not aware of the action of over-the-counter drugs.
B
Clients are not aware of the side effects of over-the-counter drugs.
C
Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription.
D
Clients do not realize the effects of over-the-counter drugs.
Question 10 Explanation:
This choice is correct because it includes the other three risks noted in choices A, B, and D.
Question 11
Which of the following statements describes the action of antacids?
A
Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
B
Antacids block the production of gastric acid.
C
Antacids block dopamine.
D
Antacids enhance action of acetylcholine.
Question 11 Explanation:
Antacids act to bring the pH above 3. Other choices are incorrect because they describe actions of antiacid drugs.
Question 12
Shenaya will be having her exam in pharmacology tomorrow. She should be aware that antitussive is indicated to:
A
encourage removal of secretions through coughing.
B
relieve rhinitis.
C
control a productive cough.
D
relieve a dry cough.
Question 12 Explanation:
An antitussive is a cough suppressant. Choices A and C describe the action of an expectorant. Choice D describes the action of a decongestant.
Question 13
Daniel has vertigo, which antihistamine is best for his condition?
A
Terfenadine
B
Meclizine
C
Hydrocodone
D
Guaifenesin
Question 13 Explanation:
Meclizine (Antivert) is given for vertigo and motion sickness. Choices C and D are not antihistamines. Choice A is an antihistamine, but meclizine is the standard drug in the treatment of vertigo.
Question 14
Which of the following is a bulk-forming agent?
A
glycerin
B
lactulose
C
FiberCon
D
Milk of Magnesia
Question 14 Explanation:
FiberCon is the bulk-forming agent. Choices A and B are incorrect because they are hyperosmotic agents. Choice D, meanwhile, is a saline laxative.
Question 15
Which of the following may be used for a bowel preparation and is not recommended for treatment of constipation?
A
Correctol
B
Fiberall
C
mineral oil
D
castor oil
Question 15 Explanation:
Castor oil is not recommended for treatment of constipation because it causes such severe abdominal pain.
Question 16
Hydrochloric acid secretion is blocked by which of the following category of drugs?
A
antacids
B
gastric stimulants
C
histamine-2 antagonists
D
antihistamines
Question 16 Explanation:
This is the only category of drugs that reduces the volume of secretions.
Question 17
A client needs rapid cleansing of the bowel, which category is best used?
A
Bacid
B
Bulk-forming agent
C
Saline laxatives with magnesium
D
Intestinal flora modifiers
Question 17 Explanation:
Saline laxatives are the best agents for rapid bowel cleansing. Bacid is an intestinal flora modifier. Bulk-forming agents will not produce rapid cleansing. Intestinal flora modifiers will not not produce rapid cleansing as well.
Question 18
Nurse Rita is giving instructions to her client who is taking antihistamine. Which of the following nurse teachings is appropriate for the client?
A
Avoid ingesting alcohol.
B
Be aware that you may need to take a decongestant.
C
Be aware that you may have increased saliva.
D
Expect a relief in 24 hours.
Question 18 Explanation:
Because alcohol and antihistamines have sedating properties, concurrent administration of these drugs should be avoided. Antihistamines and decongestants are often given together. Dry mouth is a common side effect, not increased salivation. Not all antihistamines last 24 hours.
Question 19
To evaluate the effectiveness of theophylline therapy, which of the following laboratory values must be drawn?
A
Glucose
B
Hematocrit
C
Potassium
D
Theophylline levels
Question 19 Explanation:
Theophylline levels must be drawn to determine if the drug is present in therapeutic amounts in the client’s serum.
Question 20
Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effect?
A
metoclopramide
B
cimetidine
C
Tagamet
D
famotidine
Question 20 Explanation:
This is the only drug among the choices that is indicated to prevent nausea.
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1. Nurse Rita is giving instructions to her client who is taking antihistamine. Which of the following nurse teachings is appropriate for the client?
Avoid ingesting alcohol.
Be aware that you may need to take a decongestant.
Be aware that you may have increased saliva.
Expect a relief in 24 hours.
2. Daniel has vertigo, which antihistamine is best for his condition?
Terfenadine
Meclizine
Hydrocodone
Guaifenesin
3. Raul, a 20-year-old student, used to buy OTC drugs whenever he feels sick. Which of the following statements best describes the danger of self-medication with over-the-counter drugs?
Clients are not aware of the action of over-the-counter drugs.
Clients are not aware of the side effects of over-the-counter drugs.
Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription.
Clients do not realize the effects of over-the-counter drugs.
4. Shenaya will be having her exam in pharmacology tomorrow. She should be aware that antitussive is indicated to:
encourage removal of secretions through coughing.
relieve rhinitis.
control a productive cough.
relieve a dry cough.
5. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to:
restrict fluids.
increase fluids.
avoid vaporizers.
take antihistamines.
6. When administering the methylxanthine theophylline, the nurse can expect:
Decreased pulmonary function
Increased pulmonary function
Increased residual volume
Decreased tidal volume
7. A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of theophylline?
Cardiac disorder
Diabetes
Renal disease
Hepatic disease
8. To evaluate the effectiveness of theophylline therapy, which of the following laboratory values must be drawn?
Glucose
Hematocrit
Potassium
Theophylline levels
9. The effects of theophylline may be increased by:
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Cimetidine
10. Which of the following statements describes the action of antacids?
Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
Antacids block the production of gastric acid.
Antacids block dopamine.
Antacids enhance action of acetylcholine.
11. Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effect?
metoclopramide
cimetidine
Tagamet
famotidine
12. Which of the following drugs will reduce the effectiveness of sucralfate?
ranitidine
Carafate
metoclopramide
meclizine
13. Extrapyramidal symptoms are a side effect of which of the following drugs?
ranitidine
omeprazole
famotidine
metoclopramide
14. Which histamine-2 antagonist is associated with the most drug interactions?
ranitidine
cimetidine
Prilosec
nizatidine
15. Hydrochloric acid secretion is blocked by which of the following category of drugs?
antacids
gastric stimulants
histamine-2 antagonists
antihistamines
16. Which category of drugs prevents/treats constipation by the osmotic drawing of water from extravascular space to intestinal lumen?
Stimulants
Bulk-forming agents
Hyperosmotic agents
Lubricants
17. Which of the following is a bulk-forming agent?
glycerin
lactulose
FiberCon
Milk of Magnesia
18. A client needs rapid cleansing of the bowel, which category is best used?
Bacid
Bulk-forming agent
Saline laxatives with magnesium
Intestinal flora modifiers
19. Which of the following categories is used for diarrhea and constipation?
Bulk-forming agents
Intestinal flora modifiers
Cascara
Milk of Magnesia
20. Which of the following may be used for a bowel preparation and is not recommended for treatment of constipation?
Correctol
Fiberall
mineral oil
castor oil
Answers and Rationales
Answer: A. Avoid ingesting alcohol. Because alcohol and antihistamines have sedating properties, concurrent administration of these drugs should be avoided. Antihistamines and decongestants are often given together. Dry mouth is a common side effect, not increased salivation. Not all antihistamines last 24 hours.
Answer: B. Meclizine. Meclizine (Antivert) is given for vertigo and motion sickness. Choices C and D are not antihistamines. Choice A is an antihistamine, but meclizine is the standard drug in the treatment of vertigo.
Answer: C. Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription. This choice is correct because it includes the other three risks noted in choices A, B, and D.
Answer: D. relieve a dry cough. An antitussive is a cough suppressant. Choices A and C describe the action of an expectorant. Choice D describes the action of a decongestant.
Answer: B. increase fluids. Increasing fluids will help liquefy secretions and facilitate removal.
Answer: B. Increased pulmonary function. Theophylline will improve ventilation so there will be an overall improvement of pulmonary measurements. Other choices are the opposite of what will actually occur with theophylline administration.
Answer: A. Cardiac disorder. A client with a heart condition may experience dangerous stimulation from this drug. Theophylline should be administered cautiously with all the other choices, but consequences are most dangerous or possibly fatal for clients with a heart condition.
Answer: D. Theophylline levels. Theophylline levels must be drawn to determine if the drug is present in therapeutic amounts in the client’s serum.
Answer: D. Cimetidine. Cimetidine will increase the effects of theophylline.
Answer: A. Antacids neutralize gastric acid. Antacids act to bring the pH above 3. Other choices are incorrect because they describe actions of antiacid drugs.
Answer: A. metoclopramide. This is the only drug among the choices that is indicated to prevent nausea.
Answer: A. ranitidine. Ranitidine decreases the effectiveness of sucralfate because it decreases the acid content of gastric secretion. Choice B is the trade name for sucralfate. Choice C is a gastric stimulant that does not alter pH. Choice D is an antihistamine and its GI effect is antiemetic.
Answer: D. metoclopramide. A side effect of metoclopramide is EPS.
Answer: B. cimetidine. Cimetidine was the first histamine-2 antagonist developed and is associated with the most toxic drug interactions of the group.
Answer: C. histamine-2 antagonists. This is the only category of drugs that reduces the volume of secretions.
Answer: C. Hyperosmotic agents. Hyperosmotic agents change the osmotic gradient between the intestine and extravascular space causing water to move into the intestinal lumen and balance the gradient.
Answer: C. FiberCon. FiberCon is the bulk-forming agent. Choices A and B are incorrect because they are hyperosmotic agents. Choice D, meanwhile, is a saline laxative.
Answer: C. Saline laxatives with magnesium. Saline laxatives are the best agents for rapid bowel cleansing. Bacid is an intestinal flora modifier. Bulk-forming agents will not produce rapid cleansing. Intestinal flora modifiers will not not produce rapid cleansing as well.
Answer: A. Bulk-forming agents. Bulk-forming agents are used for diarrhea and constipation.
Answer: D. castor oil. Castor oil is not recommended for treatment of constipation because it causes such severe abdominal pain.