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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology for Hormonal and Reproductive Medications (PM)*
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Question 1
Which of the following drugs poses the greatest threat to an insulin-dependent diabetic who is pregnant?
A
ritodrine hydrochloride
B
oxytocin
C
prostaglandin
D
Ergotrate
Question 1 Explanation:
The only drug that poses a threat to diabetics who are pregnant is ritodrine.
Question 2
A constant dose of estrogen with varying doses of progestin are found in:
A
monophasic pills
B
Depo-Provera
C
triphasic pills
D
biphasic pills
Question 2 Explanation:
Choice A is incorrect because monophasic pills have a constant dose of estrogen and progestin throughout the month. Choice B is incorrect because Depo-Provera is a progestin product only. Choice C is incorrect because triphasic pills may have variations in estrogen as well as progestin levels.
Question 3
Androgens are medically indicated in the management of all of the following except:
A
Hirsutism
B
Hypogonadism
C
Metabolic stimulation in prepubertal boys
D
Body building
Question 3 Explanation:
Androgens can be dangerous drugs and are medically indicated only in severe conditions, such as female hirsutism or male hypogonadism, and as metabolic stimulator.
Question 4
Which drug is used to manage preterm labor by causing smooth muscle relaxation?
A
oxytocin
B
prostaglandin
C
ritodrine
D
estrogen
Question 4 Explanation:
Ritodrine is used to arrest uterine contractions in preterm labor. Oxytocin is used to stimulate labor.
Question 5
Which of the following statements involving Type II diabetes mellitus is correct?
A
It involves inefficient insulin production.
B
It involves cessation of Insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.
C
It involves increased insulin receptor responsiveness.
D
It involves the infant client.
Question 5 Explanation:
In type II diabetes mellitus, insulin is produced in insufficient amounts along with reduced insulin receptor responsiveness. In type II diabetes mellitus, the beta cells do produce insulin but in inadequate amounts. There is decreased rather than increased insulin responsiveness.
Question 6
A relative contraindication to therapy with androgens is:
A
Hepatic failure
B
Pregnancy
C
Prostate cancer
D
Hypogonadism
Question 6 Explanation:
Hepatic failure is considered a relative contraindication because antiandrogens have been known to cause hepatic toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication. Prostate cancer is an indication for antiandrogen administration. Hypogonadism would not be considered a contraindication, but it most certainly is not an indication for therapy.
Question 7
A major side effect of insulin use that can be life threatening is:
A
Hyperglycemia
B
Stomach upset
C
Hypoglycemia
D
Tremors
Question 7 Explanation:
The action of insulin will lower glucose levels, which may prove fatal if levels drop too low.
Question 8
Estrogen is given in the management of all of the following conditions except:
A
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
B
Primary hypogonadism
C
Suppression of ovulation
D
Endometrial carcinoma
Question 8 Explanation:
Estrogen is given in the management of dysfunctional uterine bleeding, primary hypogonadism, and suppression of ovulation. Choices A, B, and C are all indicators for estrogen treatment.
Question 9
Signs of hypoglycemia include:
A
Fruity breath, thirst, flushed skin
B
Diarrhea, itching, hypertension
C
Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweating
D
Muscle ache, fever, thirst
Question 9 Explanation:
These are signs of hypoglycemia, along with restlessness, chills, confusion, nausea, hunger, tachycardia, weakness, or headache. Choice A are signs of hyperglycemia.
Question 10
Which of the following is a contraindication for use of oxytocin to induce labor?
A
Missed abortion
B
Placenta previa
C
Hyperbilirubinemia
D
Pregnancy past due date
Question 10 Explanation:
Use of oxytocin is contraindicated in the presence of placenta previa. Labor induction in this condition could be fatal to the fetus. Placenta previa is an indication for cesarean section.
Question 11
Julia is a mother who is receiving oxytocin therapy. The nurse must continuously evaluate:
A
Membrane integrity
B
Uterine contractions
C
Cervical dilation
D
Cervical effacement
Question 11 Explanation:
A client receiving oxytocin therapy requires continuous monitoring of maternal vital signs, fluid intake and output, electronic fetal monitoring, and uterine contractions.
Question 12
Nurse Casey is studying about insulin administration. She should be knowledgeable that regular insulin:
A
Is slow acting
B
Is used IV
C
Is a suspended insulin
D
Peaks in 6 to 12 hours
Question 12 Explanation:
Regular insulin is the only insulin preparation that can be administered IV. Regular insulin is rapid acting. It is a crystalline zinc preparation and peaks in 2 to 4 hours.
Question 13
Which of the following drugs will decrease the effects of vasopressin?
A
lithium (Lithane)
B
digoxin (Lanoxin)
C
penicillin (Pen-Vee-K)
D
azithromycin (Zithromax)
Question 13 Explanation:
Lithium is known to decrease the effects of vasopressin. Lithium is a salt, and antidiuretic hormone acts on the water that influences the sodium/water balance.
Question 14
Miley has been taking growth hormones for a quite sometime now. As a recipient of the agent, she should be aware that a side effect of growth hormone is:
A
Hyperthyroidism
B
Soft tissue hypertrophy
C
Dwarfism
D
Increased tumor growth
Question 14 Explanation:
Growth hormone may increase the size of a tumor if one is present. Hypothyroidism and soft tissue atrophy are the side effects. Dwarfism is the indication for therapy.
Question 15
Vasopressin is which of the following pituitary hormone?
A
Oxytocin
B
ACTH
C
Antidiuretic hormone
D
Desmopressin acetate
Question 15 Explanation:
Vasopressin is antidiuretic hormone.
Question 16
Progestins have been known to cause which of the following:
A
Decrease HDL level
B
Increase aspartate transaminase
C
Increase HDL levels
D
Decrease aspartate transaminase
Question 16 Explanation:
Progestins decrease HDL levels, which may predispose the client to increased cardiac risk.
Question 17
During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause:
A
Hypertension, premature atrial contractions
B
Hyperglycemia, premature ventricular contractions
C
Hyperglycemia, hypertension
D
Hypotension and flushing
Question 17 Explanation:
Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle will cause vasodilation leading to hypotension and flushing.
Question 18
Drew is diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. As a nurse taking care of the client, you should know that in his condition:
A
Insulin is produced but is malformed.
B
The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin.
C
The client cannot be treated.
D
Diagnosis is made in clients over age 50.
Question 18 Explanation:
In type I diabetes mellitus, the beta cells stop producing insulin completely. There is no such pathophysiologic process as malformed insulin. Clients with type I diabetes can be treated with insulin. The diagnosis can be made in clients at any age.
Question 19
Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of growth hormone?
A
The height of the child is under 4 feet.
B
The child’s age is between 5 and 6.
C
The epiphyseal shaft is open.
D
The epiphyseal shaft is closed.
Question 19 Explanation:
A closed epiphyseal shaft is a contraindication for administration of growth hormone. There are no exact height or age requirements for the administration of growth hormone.
Question 20
When caring for a client taking parathyroid medication, which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
A
Monitor serum calcium levels.
B
Evaluate bowel function.
C
Measure serum acid phosphatase.
D
Check for side effects.
Question 20 Explanation:
Serum calcium levels are altered when pathology exists in this gland. This is because the gland regulates the balance of calcium and phosphorus.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology for Hormonal and Reproductive Medications (EM)*
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You have 20 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX Practice Exam for Pharmacology for Hormonal and Reproductive Medications (EM)*.
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is a contraindication for use of oxytocin to induce labor?
A
Missed abortion
B
Placenta previa
C
Hyperbilirubinemia
D
Pregnancy past due date
Question 1 Explanation:
Use of oxytocin is contraindicated in the presence of placenta previa. Labor induction in this condition could be fatal to the fetus. Placenta previa is an indication for cesarean section.
Question 2
Vasopressin is which of the following pituitary hormone?
A
Oxytocin
B
ACTH
C
Antidiuretic hormone
D
Desmopressin acetate
Question 2 Explanation:
Vasopressin is antidiuretic hormone.
Question 3
Androgens are medically indicated in the management of all of the following except:
A
Hirsutism
B
Hypogonadism
C
Metabolic stimulation in prepubertal boys
D
Body building
Question 3 Explanation:
Androgens can be dangerous drugs and are medically indicated only in severe conditions, such as female hirsutism or male hypogonadism, and as metabolic stimulator.
Question 4
Estrogen is given in the management of all of the following conditions except:
A
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
B
Primary hypogonadism
C
Suppression of ovulation
D
Endometrial carcinoma
Question 4 Explanation:
Estrogen is given in the management of dysfunctional uterine bleeding, primary hypogonadism, and suppression of ovulation. Choices A, B, and C are all indicators for estrogen treatment.
Question 5
Miley has been taking growth hormones for a quite sometime now. As a recipient of the agent, she should be aware that a side effect of growth hormone is:
A
Hyperthyroidism
B
Soft tissue hypertrophy
C
Dwarfism
D
Increased tumor growth
Question 5 Explanation:
Growth hormone may increase the size of a tumor if one is present. Hypothyroidism and soft tissue atrophy are the side effects. Dwarfism is the indication for therapy.
Question 6
Signs of hypoglycemia include:
A
Fruity breath, thirst, flushed skin
B
Diarrhea, itching, hypertension
C
Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweating
D
Muscle ache, fever, thirst
Question 6 Explanation:
These are signs of hypoglycemia, along with restlessness, chills, confusion, nausea, hunger, tachycardia, weakness, or headache. Choice A are signs of hyperglycemia.
Question 7
Which of the following drugs will decrease the effects of vasopressin?
A
lithium (Lithane)
B
digoxin (Lanoxin)
C
penicillin (Pen-Vee-K)
D
azithromycin (Zithromax)
Question 7 Explanation:
Lithium is known to decrease the effects of vasopressin. Lithium is a salt, and antidiuretic hormone acts on the water that influences the sodium/water balance.
Question 8
Which of the following statements involving Type II diabetes mellitus is correct?
A
It involves inefficient insulin production.
B
It involves cessation of Insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.
C
It involves increased insulin receptor responsiveness.
D
It involves the infant client.
Question 8 Explanation:
In type II diabetes mellitus, insulin is produced in insufficient amounts along with reduced insulin receptor responsiveness. In type II diabetes mellitus, the beta cells do produce insulin but in inadequate amounts. There is decreased rather than increased insulin responsiveness.
Question 9
A relative contraindication to therapy with androgens is:
A
Hepatic failure
B
Pregnancy
C
Prostate cancer
D
Hypogonadism
Question 9 Explanation:
Hepatic failure is considered a relative contraindication because antiandrogens have been known to cause hepatic toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication. Prostate cancer is an indication for antiandrogen administration. Hypogonadism would not be considered a contraindication, but it most certainly is not an indication for therapy.
Question 10
Nurse Casey is studying about insulin administration. She should be knowledgeable that regular insulin:
A
Is slow acting
B
Is used IV
C
Is a suspended insulin
D
Peaks in 6 to 12 hours
Question 10 Explanation:
Regular insulin is the only insulin preparation that can be administered IV. Regular insulin is rapid acting. It is a crystalline zinc preparation and peaks in 2 to 4 hours.
Question 11
When caring for a client taking parathyroid medication, which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
A
Monitor serum calcium levels.
B
Evaluate bowel function.
C
Measure serum acid phosphatase.
D
Check for side effects.
Question 11 Explanation:
Serum calcium levels are altered when pathology exists in this gland. This is because the gland regulates the balance of calcium and phosphorus.
Question 12
During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause:
A
Hypertension, premature atrial contractions
B
Hyperglycemia, premature ventricular contractions
C
Hyperglycemia, hypertension
D
Hypotension and flushing
Question 12 Explanation:
Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle will cause vasodilation leading to hypotension and flushing.
Question 13
Which of the following drugs poses the greatest threat to an insulin-dependent diabetic who is pregnant?
A
ritodrine hydrochloride
B
oxytocin
C
prostaglandin
D
Ergotrate
Question 13 Explanation:
The only drug that poses a threat to diabetics who are pregnant is ritodrine.
Question 14
A constant dose of estrogen with varying doses of progestin are found in:
A
monophasic pills
B
Depo-Provera
C
triphasic pills
D
biphasic pills
Question 14 Explanation:
Choice A is incorrect because monophasic pills have a constant dose of estrogen and progestin throughout the month. Choice B is incorrect because Depo-Provera is a progestin product only. Choice C is incorrect because triphasic pills may have variations in estrogen as well as progestin levels.
Question 15
A major side effect of insulin use that can be life threatening is:
A
Hyperglycemia
B
Stomach upset
C
Hypoglycemia
D
Tremors
Question 15 Explanation:
The action of insulin will lower glucose levels, which may prove fatal if levels drop too low.
Question 16
Drew is diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. As a nurse taking care of the client, you should know that in his condition:
A
Insulin is produced but is malformed.
B
The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin.
C
The client cannot be treated.
D
Diagnosis is made in clients over age 50.
Question 16 Explanation:
In type I diabetes mellitus, the beta cells stop producing insulin completely. There is no such pathophysiologic process as malformed insulin. Clients with type I diabetes can be treated with insulin. The diagnosis can be made in clients at any age.
Question 17
Progestins have been known to cause which of the following:
A
Decrease HDL level
B
Increase aspartate transaminase
C
Increase HDL levels
D
Decrease aspartate transaminase
Question 17 Explanation:
Progestins decrease HDL levels, which may predispose the client to increased cardiac risk.
Question 18
Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of growth hormone?
A
The height of the child is under 4 feet.
B
The child’s age is between 5 and 6.
C
The epiphyseal shaft is open.
D
The epiphyseal shaft is closed.
Question 18 Explanation:
A closed epiphyseal shaft is a contraindication for administration of growth hormone. There are no exact height or age requirements for the administration of growth hormone.
Question 19
Which drug is used to manage preterm labor by causing smooth muscle relaxation?
A
oxytocin
B
prostaglandin
C
ritodrine
D
estrogen
Question 19 Explanation:
Ritodrine is used to arrest uterine contractions in preterm labor. Oxytocin is used to stimulate labor.
Question 20
Julia is a mother who is receiving oxytocin therapy. The nurse must continuously evaluate:
A
Membrane integrity
B
Uterine contractions
C
Cervical dilation
D
Cervical effacement
Question 20 Explanation:
A client receiving oxytocin therapy requires continuous monitoring of maternal vital signs, fluid intake and output, electronic fetal monitoring, and uterine contractions.
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1. Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of growth hormone?
The height of the child is under 4 feet.
The child’s age is between 5 and 6.
The epiphyseal shaft is open.
The epiphyseal shaft is closed.
2. Miley has been taking growth hormones for a quite sometime now. As a recipient of the agent, she should be aware that a side effect of growth hormone is:
Hyperthyroidism
Soft tissue hypertrophy
Dwarfism
Increased tumor growth
3. Vasopressin is which of the following pituitary hormone?
Oxytocin
ACTH
Antidiuretic hormone
Desmopressin acetate
4. Which of the following drugs will decrease the effects of vasopressin?
lithium (Lithane)
digoxin (Lanoxin)
penicillin (Pen-Vee-K)
azithromycin (Zithromax)
5. When caring for a client taking parathyroid medication, which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
Monitor serum calcium levels.
Evaluate bowel function.
Measure serum acid phosphatase.
Check for side effects.
6. Drew is diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. As a nurse taking care of the client, you should know that in his condition:
Insulin is produced but is malformed.
The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin.
The client cannot be treated.
Diagnosis is made in clients over age 50.
7. Which of the following statements involving Type II diabetes mellitus is correct?
It involves inefficient insulin production.
It involves cessation of Insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.
It involves increased insulin receptor responsiveness.
It involves the infant client.
8. A major side effect of insulin use that can be life threatening is:
Hyperglycemia
Stomach upset
Hypoglycemia
Tremors
9. Nurse Casey is studying about insulin administration. She should be knowledgeable that regular insulin:
Is slow acting
Is used IV
Is a suspended insulin
Peaks in 6 to 12 hours
10. Signs of hypoglycemia include:
Fruity breath, thirst, flushed skin
Diarrhea, itching, hypertension
Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweating
Muscle ache, fever, thirst
11. Estrogen is given in the management of all of the following conditions except:
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Primary hypogonadism
Suppression of ovulation
Endometrial carcinoma
12. Progestins have been known to cause which of the following:
Decrease HDL level
Increase aspartate transaminase
Increase HDL levels
Decrease aspartate transaminase
13. A constant dose of estrogen with varying doses of progestin are found in:
monophasic pills
Depo-Provera
triphasic pills
biphasic pills
14. Androgens are medically indicated in the management of all of the following except:
Hirsutism
Hypogonadism
Metabolic stimulation in prepubertal boys
Body building
15. A relative contraindication to therapy with androgens is:
Hepatic failure
Pregnancy
Prostate cancer
Hypogonadism
16. Which of the following is a contraindication for use of oxytocin to induce labor?
Missed abortion
Placenta previa
Hyperbilirubinemia
Pregnancy past due date
17. During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause:
Hypertension, premature atrial contractions
Hyperglycemia, premature ventricular contractions
Hyperglycemia, hypertension
Hypotension and flushing
18. Julia is a mother who is receiving oxytocin therapy. The nurse must continuously evaluate:
Membrane integrity
Uterine contractions
Cervical dilation
Cervical effacement
19. Which drug is used to manage preterm labor by causing smooth muscle relaxation?
oxytocin
prostaglandin
ritodrine
estrogen
20. Which of the following drugs poses the greatest threat to an insulin-dependent diabetic who is pregnant?
ritodrine hydrochloride
oxytocin
prostaglandin
Ergotrate
Answers and Rationale
Answer: D. The epiphyseal shaft is closed. A closed epiphyseal shaft is a contraindication for administration of growth hormone. There are no exact height or age requirements for the administration of growth hormone.
Answer: D. Increased tumor growth. Growth hormone may increase the size of a tumor if one is present. Hypothyroidism and soft tissue atrophy are the side effects. Dwarfism is the indication for therapy.
Answer: C. Antidiuretic hormone. Vasopressin is antidiuretic hormone.
Answer: A. lithium (Lithane). Lithium is known to decrease the effects of vasopressin. Lithium is a salt, and antidiuretic hormone acts on the water that influences the sodium/water balance.
Answer: A. Monitor serum calcium levels. Serum calcium levels are altered when pathology exists in this gland. This is because the gland regulates the balance of calcium and phosphorus.
Answer: B. The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin. In type I diabetes mellitus, the beta cells stop producing insulin completely. There is no such pathophysiologic process as malformed insulin. Clients with type I diabetes can be treated with insulin. The diagnosis can be made in clients at any age.
Answer: A. It involves inefficient insulin production. In type II diabetes mellitus, insulin is produced in insufficient amounts along with reduced insulin receptor responsiveness. In type II diabetes mellitus, the beta cells do produce insulin but in inadequate amounts. There is decreased rather than increased insulin responsiveness.
Answer: C. Hypoglycemia. The action of insulin will lower glucose levels, which may prove fatal if levels drop too low.
Answer: B. Is used IV. Regular insulin is the only insulin preparation that can be administered IV. Regular insulin is rapid acting. It is a crystalline zinc preparation and peaks in 2 to 4 hours.
Answer: C. Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweating. These are signs of hypoglycemia, along with restlessness, chills, confusion, nausea, hunger, tachycardia, weakness, or headache. Choice A are signs of hyperglycemia.
Answer: D. Endometrial carcinoma. Estrogen is given in the management of dysfunctional uterine bleeding, primary hypogonadism, and suppression of ovulation. Choices A, B, and C are all indicators for estrogen treatment.
A. Decrease HDL level. Progestins decrease HDL levels, which may predispose the client to increased cardiac risk.
Answer: D. biphasic pills. Choice A is incorrect because monophasic pills have a constant dose of estrogen and progestin throughout the month. Choice B is incorrect because Depo-Provera is a progestin product only. Choice C is incorrect because triphasic pills may have variations in estrogen as well as progestin levels.
Answer: D. Body building. Androgens can be dangerous drugs and are medically indicated only in severe conditions, such as female hirsutism or male hypogonadism, and as metabolic stimulator.
Answer: A. Hepatic failure. Hepatic failure is considered a relative contraindication because antiandrogens have been known to cause hepatic toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication. Prostate cancer is an indication for antiandrogen administration. Hypogonadism would not be considered a contraindication, but it most certainly is not an indication for therapy.
Answer: B. Placenta previa. Use of oxytocin is contraindicated in the presence of placenta previa. Labor induction in this condition could be fatal to the fetus. Placenta previa is an indication for cesarean section.
Answer: D. Hypotension and flushing. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle will cause vasodilation leading to hypotension and flushing.
Answer: B. Uterine contractions. A client receiving oxytocin therapy requires continuous monitoring of maternal vital signs, fluid intake and output, electronic fetal monitoring, and uterine contractions.
Answer: C. ritodrine. Ritodrine is used to arrest uterine contractions in preterm labor. Oxytocin is used to stimulate labor.
Answer: A. ritodrine hydrochloride. The only drug that poses a threat to diabetics who are pregnant is ritodrine.