PNLE Exam 2

1. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the following instructions?

  1. Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours
  2. Avoid having sexual intercourse
  3. Don’t get pregnant at least 3 months
  4. Avoid exposure to sun

2. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has increased intracranial pressure?

  1. Increased urinary output
  2. Decreased RR
  3. Slowed papillary response
  4. Decreased level of consciousness

3. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?

  1. Incubation period is 6 months
  2. Incubation period is 1 week
  3. Incubation period is 1 month
  4. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite

4. Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a male client with rabies?

  1. Encourage the patient to take a bath
  2. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
  3. Place the patient near the comfort room
  4. Place the patient near the door

5. Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic fever?

  1. Complete blood count
  2. ELISA
  3. Rumpel-leede test
  4. Sedimentation rate

6. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:

  1. WBC count
  2. Urinalysis
  3. ELISA
  4. Peripheral blood smear

7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient’s assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster?

  1. Nurse who never had chicken pox
  2. Nurse who never had roseola
  3. Nurse who never had german measles
  4. Nurse who never had mumps

8. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization?

  1. At once
  2. During 2nd trimester
  3. During 3rd trimester
  4. After the delivery of the baby

9. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:

  1. 21 year old male cousin living in the same house
  2. 18 year old sister who recently got married
  3. 11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood
  4. 4 year old girl who lives next door

10. What is the primary prevention of leprosy?

  1. Nutrition
  2. Vitamins
  3. BCG vaccination
  4. DPT vaccination

11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?

  1. Amoeba
  2. Cholera
  3. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
  4. Spirochete

12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the instruction well?

  1. I will come back later
  2. I will come back next month
  3. I will come back on Friday
  4. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result

13. A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the result as:

  1. Negative
  2. Uncertain and needs to be repeated
  3. Positive
  4. Inconclusive

14. Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to:

  1. Use alcohol moderately
  2. Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy
  3. Incomplete intake of dairy products
  4. May be discontinued if symptoms subsides

15. Which is the primary characteristic lesion of syphilis?

  1. Sore eyes
  2. Sore throat
  3. Chancroid
  4. Chancre

16. What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?

  1. 60 breaths per minute
  2. 40 breaths per minute
  3. 10 breaths per minute
  4. 20 breaths per minute

17. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate some dehydration?

  1. Drinks eagerly
  2. Restless and irritable
  3. Unconscious
  4. A and B

18. What is the first line for dysentery?

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Cefalexin
  4. Cotrimoxazole

19. In home made oresol, what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water?

  1. 1 tbsp. salt and 8 tbsp. sugar
  2. 1 tbsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
  3. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
  4. 8 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar

20. Gentian Violet is used for:

  1. Wound
  2. Umbilical infections
  3. Ear infections
  4. Burn

21. Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?

  1. BCG
  2. OPV
  3. Measles
  4. None of the above

22. EPI is based on?

  1. Basic health services
  2. Scope of community affected
  3. Epidemiological situation
  4. Research studies

23. TT? provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?

  1. 100
  2. 99
  3. 80
  4. 90

24. Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:

  1. -3c to -8c
  2. -15c to -25c
  3. +15c to +25c
  4. +3c to +8c

25. Diptheria is a:

  1. Bacterial toxin
  2. Killed bacteria
  3. Live attenuated
  4. Plasma derivatives

26. Budgeting is under in which part of management process?

  1. Directing
  2. Controlling
  3. Organizing
  4. Planning

27. Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:

  1. Staffing
  2. Schedule
  3. Scheduling
  4. Planning

28. A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?

  1. Motivation
  2. Envy
  3. Reward
  4. Self-esteem

29. “To be the leading hospital in the Philippines” is best illustrate in:

  1. Mission
  2. Philosophy
  3. Vision
  4. Objective

30. It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared?

  1. Job descriptions
  2. Survey
  3. Flow chart
  4. Standards

31. Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement?

  1. Feedback
  2. Positive reinforcement
  3. Performance appraisal
  4. Negative reinforcement

32. Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as?

  1. Survey
  2. Close ended
  3. Questionnaire
  4. Demographic

33. A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be which type of reasoning:

  1. Inductive
  2. Logical
  3. Illogical
  4. Deductive

34. The balance of a research’s benefit vs. its risks to the subject is:

  1. Analysis
  2. Risk-benefit ratio
  3. Percentile
  4. Maximum risk

35. An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:

  1. Element
  2. Subject
  3. Respondent
  4. Author

36. An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected:

  1. Flowchart
  2. Bar graph
  3. Organizational chart
  4. Line graph

37. The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is:

  1. Fatima University
  2. Far Eastern University
  3. University of the East
  4. University of Sto. Tomas

38. Florence nightingale is born on:

  1. France
  2. Britain
  3. U.S
  4. Italy

39. Objective data is also called:

  1. Covert
  2. Overt
  3. Inference
  4. Evaluation

40. An example of subjective data is:

  1. Size of wounds
  2. VS
  3. Lethargy
  4. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”

41. What is the best position in palpating the breast?

  1. Trendelenburg
  2. Side lying
  3. Supine
  4. Lithotomy

42. When is the best time in performing breast self examination?

  1. 7 days after menstrual period
  2. 7 days before menstrual period
  3. 5 days after menstrual period
  4. 5 days before menstrual period

43. Which of the following should be given the highest priority before performing physical examination to a patient?

  1. Preparation of the room
  2. Preparation of the patient
  3. Preparation of the nurse
  4. Preparation of environment

44. It is a flip over card usually kept in portable file at nursing station.

  1. Nursing care plan
  2. Medicine and treatment record
  3. Kardex
  4. TPR sheet

45. Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The nurse in charge is aware that the best position for Jose is:

  1. Semi fowlers
  2. Low fowlers
  3. Side lying, unaffected side
  4. Side lying, affected side

46. The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:

  1. Auscultation
  2. Palpation
  3. Inspection
  4. Percussion

47. A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?

  1. Bradyprea
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Constricted pupils
  4. Dilated pupils

48. Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest and neck. What will be the priority nursing diagnosis?

  1. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
  2. Impaired mobility related to pain
  3. Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss
  4. Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption

49. In assessing a client’s incision 1 day after the surgery, Nurse Betty expect to see which of the following as signs of a local inflammatory response?

  1. Greenish discharge
  2. Brown exudates at incision edges
  3. Pallor around sutures
  4. Redness and warmth

50. Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately:

  1. 2 kilograms
  2. 1 kilograms
  3. 100 grams
  4. 1.5 kilograms

51. After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord and expects to find a cord to:

  1. Two arteries and two veins
  2. One artery and one vein
  3. Two arteries and one vein
  4. One artery and two veins

52. Myrna a pregnant client reports that her last menstrual cycle is July 11, her expected date of birth is

  1. November 4
  2. November 11
  3. April 4
  4. April 18

53. Which of the following is not a good source of iron?

  1. Butter
  2. Pechay
  3. Grains
  4. Beef

54. Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following would you anticipate?

  1. NPO
  2. Bed rest
  3. Immediate surgery
  4. Enema

55. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. Which position would you expect to place her based on this diagnosis?

  1. Supine
  2. Left side lying
  3. Trendelinburg
  4. Semi-fowlers

56. Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna understands her condition well when she remarks that urinary frequency is caused by:

  1. Pressure caused by the ascending uterus
  2. Water intake of 3L a day
  3. Effect of cold weather
  4. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables

57. How many ml of blood is loss during the first 24 hours post delivery of Myrna?

  1. 100
  2. 500
  3. 200
  4. 400

58. Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Prolactin
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Estrogen

59. Nurse Carla is aware that Myla’s second stage of labor is beginning when the following assessment is noted:

  1. Bay of water is broken
  2. Contractions are regular
  3. Cervix is completely dilated
  4. Presence of bloody show

60. The leaking fluid is tested with nitrazine paper. Nurse Kelly confirms that the client’s membrane have ruptures when the paper turns into a:

  1. Pink
  2. Violet
  3. Green
  4. Blue

61. After amniotomy, the priority nursing action is:

  1. Document the color and consistency of amniotic fluid
  2. Listen the fetal heart tone
  3. Position the mother in her left side
  4. Let the mother rest

62. Which is the most frequent reason for postpartum hemorrhage?

  1. Perineal lacerations
  2. Frequent internal examination (IE)
  3. CS
  4. Uterine atomy

63. On 2nd postpartum day, which height would you expect to find the fundus in a woman who has had a caesarian birth?

  1. 1 finger above umbilicus
  2. 2 fingers above umbilicus
  3. 2 fingers below umbilicus
  4. 1 finger below umbilicus

64. Which of the following criteria allows Nurse Kris to perform home deliveries?

  1. Normal findings during assessment
  2. Previous CS
  3. Diabetes history
  4. Hypertensive history

65. Nurse Carla is aware that one of the following vaccines is done by intramuscular (IM) injection?

  1. Measles
  2. OPV
  3. BCG
  4. Tetanus toxoid

66. Asin law is on which legal basis:

  1. RA 8860
  2. RA 2777
  3. RI 8172
  4. RR 6610

67. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:

  1. Akapulco
  2. Sambong
  3. Tsaang gubat
  4. Bayabas

68. Community/Public health bag is defined as:

  1. An essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse during home visit
  2. It contains drugs and equipment used by the community health nurse
  3. Is a requirement in the health center and for home visit
  4. It is a tool used by the community health nurse in rendering effective procedures during home visit

69. TT4 provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?

  1. 70
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 99

70. Third postpartum visit must be done by public health nurse:

  1. Within 24 hours after delivery
  2. After 2-4 weeks
  3. Within 1 week
  4. After 2 months

71. Nurse Candy is aware that the family planning method that may give 98% protection to another pregnancy to women

  1. Pills
  2. Tubal ligation
  3. Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM)
  4. IUD

72. Which of the following is not a part of IMCI case management process

  1. Counsel the mother
  2. Identify the illness
  3. Assess the child
  4. Treat the child

73. If a young child has pneumonia when should the mother bring him back for follow up?

  1. After 2 days
  2. In the afternoon
  3. After 4 days
  4. After 5 days

74. It is the certification recognition program that develop and promotes standard for health facilities:

  1. Formula
  2. Tutok gamutan
  3. Sentrong program movement
  4. Sentrong sigla movement

75. Baby Marie was born May 23, 1984. Nurse John will expect finger thumb opposition on:

  1. April 1985
  2. February 1985
  3. March 1985
  4. June 1985

76. Baby Reese is a 12 month old child. Nurse Oliver would anticipate how many teeth?

  1. 9
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 6

77. Which of the following is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning?

  1. Narcan
  2. Digoxin
  3. Acetylcysteine
  4. Flumazenil

78. A male child has an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Which kind of environment and interdisciplinary program most likely to benefit this child would be best described as:

  1. Habit training
  2. Sheltered workshop
  3. Custodial
  4. Educational

79. Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence of congenital G.I anomaly?

  1. Cord prolapse
  2. Polyhydramios
  3. Placenta previa
  4. Oligohydramios

80. Nurse Christine provides health teaching for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. Nurse Christine teaches the parents to include which of the following food items in the child’s diet:

  1. Rye toast
  2. Oatmeal
  3. White bread
  4. Rice

81. Nurse Randy is planning to administer oral medication to a 3 year old child. Nurse Randy is aware that the best way to proceed is by:

  1. “Would you like to drink your medicine?”
  2. “If you take your medicine now, I’ll give you lollipop”
  3. “See the other boy took his medicine? Now it’s your turn.”
  4. “Here’s your medicine. Would you like a mango or orange juice?”

82. At what age a child can brush her teeth without help?

  1. 6 years
  2. 7 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 8 years

83. Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a female hospitalized child with RSV. Nurse Judy prepare this medication via which route?

  1. Intra venous
  2. Oral
  3. Oxygen tent
  4. Subcutaneous

84. The present chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines is:

  1. Maria Joanna Cervantes
  2. Carmencita Abaquin
  3. Leonor Rosero
  4. Primitiva Paquic

85. The obligation to maintain efficient ethical standards in the practice of nursing belong to this body:

  1. BON
  2. ANSAP
  3. PNA
  4. RN

86. A male nurse was found guilty of negligence. His license was revoked. Re-issuance of revoked certificates is after how many years?

  1. 1 year
  2. 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. 4 years

87. Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC identification card?

  1. Registration Date
  2. License Number
  3. Date of Application
  4. Signature of PRC chairperson

88. Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk code or:

  1. EO 51
  2. R.A. 7600
  3. R.A. 6700
  4. P.D. 996

89. Self governance, ability to choose or carry out decision without undue pressure or coercion from anyone:

  1. Veracity
  2. Autonomy
  3. Fidelity
  4. Beneficence

90. A male patient complained because his scheduled surgery was cancelled because of earthquake. The hospital personnel may be excused because of:

  1. Governance
  2. Respondent superior
  3. Force majeure
  4. Res ipsa loquitor

91. Being on time, meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties is what virtue?

  1. Fidelity
  2. Autonomy
  3. Veracity
  4. Confidentiality

92. This quality is being demonstrated by Nurse Ron who raises the side rails of a confused and disoriented patient?

  1. Responsibility
  2. Resourcefulness
  3. Autonomy
  4. Prudence

93. Which of the following is formal continuing education?

  1. Conference
  2. Enrollment in graduate school
  3. Refresher course
  4. Seminar

94. The BSN curriculum prepares the graduates to become?

  1. Nurse generalist
  2. Nurse specialist
  3. Primary health nurse
  4. Clinical instructor

95. Disposal of medical records in government hospital/institutions must be done in close coordination with what agency?

  1. Department of Health
  2. Records Management Archives Office
  3. Metro Manila Development Authority
  4. Bureau of Internal Revenue

96. Nurse Jolina must see to it that the written consent of mentally ill patients must be taken from:

  1. Nurse
  2. Priest
  3. Family lawyer
  4. Parents/legal guardians

97. When Nurse Clarence respects the client’s self-disclosure, this is a gauge for the nurses’

  1. Respectfulness
  2. Loyalty
  3. Trustworthiness
  4. Professionalism

98. The Nurse is aware that the following tasks can be safely delegated by the nurse to a non-nurse health worker except:

  1. Taking vital signs
  2. Change IV infusions
  3. Transferring the client from bed to chair
  4. Irrigation of NGT

99. During the evening round Nurse Tina saw Mr. Toralba meditating and afterwards started singing prayerful hymns. What would be the best response of Nurse Tina?

  1. Call the attention of the client and encourage to sleep
  2. Report the incidence to head nurse
  3. Respect the client’s action
  4. Document the situation

100. In caring for a dying client, you should perform which of the following activities

  1. Do not resuscitate
  2. Assist client to perform ADL
  3. Encourage to exercise
  4. Assist client towards a peaceful death

101. The Nurse is aware that the ability to enter into the life of another person and perceive his current feelings and their meaning is known:

  1. Belongingness
  2. Genuineness
  3. Empathy
  4. Respect

102. The termination phase of the NPR is best described one of the following:

  1. Review progress of therapy and attainment of goals
  2. Exploring the client’s thoughts, feelings and concerns
  3. Identifying and solving patients problem
  4. Establishing rapport

103. During the process of cocaine withdrawal, the physician orders which of the following:

  1. Haloperidol (Haldol)
  2. Imipramine (Tofranil)
  3. Benztropine (Cogentin)
  4. Diazepam (Valium)

104. The nurse is aware that cocaine is classified as:

  1. Hallucinogen
  2. Psycho stimulant
  3. Anxiolytic
  4. Narcotic

105. In community health nursing, it is the most important risk factor in the development of mental illness?

  1. Separation of parents
  2. Political problems
  3. Poverty
  4. Sexual abuse

106. All of the following are characteristics of crisis except

  1. The client may become resistive and active in stopping the crisis
  2. It is self-limiting for 4-6 weeks
  3. It is unique in every individual
  4. It may also affect the family of the client

107. Freud states that temper tantrums is observed in which of the following:

  1. Oral
  2. Anal
  3. Phallic
  4. Latency

108. The nurse is aware that ego development begins during:

  1. Toddler period
  2. Preschool age
  3. School age
  4. Infancy

109. Situation: A 19 year old nursing student has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks. Her parents brought her to the hospital for medical evaluation. The diagnosis was ANOREXIA NERVOSA. The Primary gain of a client with anorexia nervosa is:

  1. Weight loss
  2. Weight gain
  3. Reduce anxiety
  4. Attractive appearance

110. The nurse is aware that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client is:

  1. Altered nutrition : less than body requirement
  2. Altered nutrition : more than body requirement
  3. Impaired tissue integrity
  4. Risk for malnutrition

111. After 14 days in the hospital, which finding indicates that her condition in improving?

  1. She tells the nurse that she had no idea that she is thin
  2. She arrives earlier than scheduled time of group therapy
  3. She tells the nurse that she eat 3 times or more in a day
  4. She gained 4 lbs in two weeks

112. The nurse is aware that ataractics or psychic energizers are also known as:

  1. Anti manic
  2. Anti depressants
  3. Antipsychotics
  4. Anti anxiety

113. Known as mood elevators:

  1. Anti depressants
  2. Antipsychotics
  3. Anti manic
  4. Anti anxiety

114. The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease is

  1. Help client develop coping mechanism
  2. Encourage to learn new hobbies and interest
  3. Provide him stimulating environment
  4. Simplify the environment to eliminate the need to make chores

115. Autism is diagnosed at:

  1. Infancy
  2. 3 years old
  3. 5 years old
  4. School age

116. The common characteristic of autism child is:

  1. Impulsitivity
  2. Self destructiveness
  3. Hostility
  4. Withdrawal

117. The nurse is aware that the most common indication in using ECT is:

  1. Schizophrenia
  2. Bipolar
  3. Anorexia Nervosa
  4. Depression

118. A therapy that focuses on here and now principle to promote self-acceptance?

  1. Gestalt therapy
  2. Cognitive therapy
  3. Behavior therapy
  4. Personality therapy

119. A client has many irrational thoughts. The goal of therapy is to change her:

  1. Personality
  2. Communication
  3. Behavior
  4. Cognition

120. The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I disorder, in manic phase is:

  1. Low fat, low sodium
  2. Low calorie, high fat
  3. Finger foods, high in calorie
  4. Small frequent feedings

121. Which of the following activity would be best for a depressed client?

  1. Chess
  2. Basketball
  3. Swimming
  4. Finger painting

122. The nurse is aware that clients with severe depression, possess which defense mechanism:

  1. Introjection
  2. Suppression
  3. Repression
  4. Projection

123. Nurse John is aware that self mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients is a means of:

  1. Overcoming fear of failure
  2. Overcoming feeling of insecurity
  3. Relieving depression
  4. Relieving anxiety

124. Which of the following may cause an increase in the cystitis symptoms?

  1. Water
  2. Orange juice
  3. Coffee
  4. Mango juice

125. In caring for clients with renal calculi, which is the priority nursing intervention?

  1. Record vital signs
  2. Strain urine
  3. Limit fluids
  4. Administer analgesics as prescribed

126. In patient with renal failure, the diet should be:

  1. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium
  2. Low protein, high potassium
  3. High carbohydrate, low protein
  4. High calcium, high protein

127. Which of the following cannot be corrected by dialysis?

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Elevated creatinine
  4. Decreased hemoglobin

128. Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. Later the client complaints of ringing in the ears. This ototoxicity is damage to:

  1. 4th CN
  2. 8th CN
  3. 7th CN
  4. 9th CN

129. Nurse Emma provides teaching to a patient with recurrent urinary tract infection includes the following:

  1. Increase intake of tea, coffee and colas
  2. Void every 6 hours per day
  3. Void immediately after intercourse
  4. Take tub bath everyday

130. Which assessment finding indicates circulatory constriction in a male client with a newly applied long leg cast?

  1. Blanching or cyanosis of legs
  2. Complaints of pressure or tightness
  3. Inability to move toes
  4. Numbness of toes

131. During acute gout attack, the nurse administer which of the following drug:

  1. Prednisone (Deltasone)
  2. Colchicines
  3. Aspirin
  4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

132. Information in the patients chart is inadmissible in court as evidence when:

  1. The client objects to its use
  2. Handwriting is not legible
  3. It has too many unofficial abbreviations
  4. The clients parents refuses to use it

133. Nurse Karen is revising a client plan of care. During which step of the nursing process does such revision take place?

  1. Planning
  2. Implementation
  3. Diagnosing
  4. Evaluation

134. When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should assess:

  1. Symptomatic quadrant either second or first
  2. The symptomatic quadrant last
  3. The symptomatic quadrant first
  4. Any quadrant

135. How long will nurse John obtain an accurate reading of temperature via oral route?

  1. 3 minutes
  2. 1 minute
  3. 8 minutes
  4. 15 minutes

136. The one filing the criminal care against an accused party is said to be the?

  1. Guilty
  2. Accused
  3. Plaintiff
  4. Witness

137. A male client has a standing DNR order. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside. You would:

  1. Call the physician
  2. Stay with the client and do nothing
  3. Call another nurse
  4. Call the family

138. The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as a new field in nursing during what year?

  1. 1994
  2. 1992
  3. 2000
  4. 2001

139. When is the first certification of nursing informatics given?

  1. 1990-1993
  2. 2001-2002
  3. 1994-1996
  4. 2005-2008

140. The nurse is assessing a female client with possible diagnosis of osteoarthritis. The most significant risk factor for osteoarthritis is:

  1. Obesity
  2. Race
  3. Job
  4. Age

141. A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Bea anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?

  1. Tymphanic membranes
  2. Inner ear
  3. Auricle
  4. External ear

142. When performing Weber’s test, Nurse Rosean expects that this client will hear

  1. On unaffected side
  2. Longer through bone than air conduction
  3. On affected side by bone conduction
  4. By neither bone or air conduction

143. Toy with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis can confirmed by:

  1. Kernigs sign
  2. Brudzinski’s sign
  3. A positive sweat chloride test
  4. A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test

144. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment finding is the most significant?

  1. Even, unlabored respirations
  2. Soft, non distended abdomen
  3. Urine output of 50 ml/hr
  4. Warm skin

145. For a female client with suspected intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is:

  1. Maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (Pa O2) above 80mmHg
  2. Promote elimination of carbon dioxide
  3. Lower the PH
  4. Prevent respiratory alkalosis

146. Which nursing assessment would identify the earliest sign of ICP?

  1. Change in level of consciousness
  2. Temperature of over 103°F
  3. Widening pulse pressure
  4. Unequal pupils

147. The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male patient will be which of the following:

  1. Pulmonary embolism
  2. Cardiac arrest
  3. Thrombus formation
  4. Myocardial infarction

148. Linda, A 30 year old post hysterectomy client has visited the health center. She inquired about BSE and asked the nurse when BSE should be performed. You answered that the BSE is best performed:

  1. 7 days after menstruation
  2. At the same day each month
  3. During menstruation
  4. Before menstruation

149. An infant is ordered to recive 500 ml of D5NSS for 24 hours. The Intravenous drip is running at 60 gtts/min. How many drops per minute should the flow rate be?

  1. 60 gtts/min.
  2. 21 gtts/min
  3. 30 gtts/min
  4. 15 gtts/min

150. Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 10 drops per minute. Approximately how many drops per minutes should the IV be regulated?

  1. 13-14 drops
  2. 17-18 drops
  3. 10-12 drops
  4. 15-16 drops
  1. C.  Don’t get pregnant at least 3 months
  2. A.  Increased urinary output
  3. D.  Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
  4. B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
  5. C. Rumpel-leede test
  6. D. Peripheral blood smear
  7. A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
  8. D. After the delivery of the baby
  9. B. 18 year old sister who recently got married
  10. C. BCG vaccination
  11. C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
  12. D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
  13. C. Positive
  14. B. Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy
  15. D. Chancre
  16. A. 60 breaths per minute
  17. D. A and B
  18. D. Cotrimoxazole
  19. C. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
  20. B. Umbilical infections
  21. A. BCG
  22. C. Epidemiological situation
  23. D. 90
  24. B. -15c to -25c
  25. A. Bacterial toxin
  26. D. Planning
  27. B. Schedule
  28. A. Motivation
  29. C. Vision
  30. D. Standards
  31. D. Negative reinforcement
  32. B. Close ended
  33. A. Inductive
  34. B. Risk-benefit ratio
  35. A. Element
  36. C. Organizational chart
  37. D. University of Sto. Tomas
  38. D. Italy
  39. B. Overt
  40. D. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”
  41. C. Supine
  42. A. 7 days after menstrual period
  43. B. Preparation of the patient
  44. C. Kardex
  45. C. Side lying, unaffected side
  46. D. Percussion
  47. D. Dilated pupils
  48. A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
  49. D. Redness and warmth
  50. B. 1 kilograms
  51. C. Two arteries and one vein
  52. D. April 18
  53. A. Butter
  54. C. Immediate surgery
  55. D. Semi-fowlers
  56. A. Pressure caused by the ascending uterus
  57. B. 500
  58. D. Estrogen
  59. C. Cervix is completely dilated
  60. D. Blue
  61. B. Listen the fetal heart tone
  62. D. Uterine atomy
  63. C. 2 fingers below umbilicus
  64. A. Normal findings during assessment
  65. D. Tetanus toxoid
  66. C. RI 8172
  67. B. Sambong
  68. A. An essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse during home visit
  69. D. 99
  70. B. After 2-4 weeks
  71. C. Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM)
  72. B. Identify the illness
  73. A. After 2 days
  74. D. Sentrong sigla movement
  75. B. February 1985
  76. D. 6
  77. C. Acetylcysteine
  78. A. Habit training
  79. B. Polyhydramios
  80. D. Rice
  81. D. “Here’s your medicine. Would you like a mango or orange juice?”
  82. A.  6 years
  83. C. Oxygen tent
  84. B. Carmencita Abaquin
  85. A. BON
  86. D. 4 years
  87. C. Date of Application
  88. A. EO 51
  89. B. Autonomy
  90. C. Force majeure
  91. A. Fidelity
  92. D. Prudence
  93. B. Enrollment in graduate school
  94. C. Primary health nurse
  95. A. Department of Health
  96. D. Parents/legal guardians
  97. C. Trustworthiness
  98. B. Change IV infusions
  99. C. Respect the client’s action
  100. D. Assist client towards a peaceful death
  101. C. Empathy
  102. A. Review progress of therapy and attainment of goals
  103. D. Diazepam (Valium)
  104. B. Psycho stimulant
  105. C. Poverty
  106. A. The client may become resistive and active in stopping the crisis
  107. B. Anal
  108. D. Infancy
  109. C. Reduce anxiety
  110. A. Altered nutrition : less than body requirement
  111. D. She gained 4 lbs in two weeks
  112. C. Antipsychotics
  113. A. Anti depressants
  114. D. Simplify the environment to eliminate the need to make chores
  115. B. 3 years old
  116. D. Withdrawal
  117. D. Depression
  118. A. Gestalt therapy
  119. D. Cognition
  120. C. Finger foods, high in calorie
  121. D. Finger painting
  122. A. Introjection
  123. B. Overcoming feeling of insecurity
  124. C. Coffee
  125. D. Administer analgesics as prescribed
  126. A. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium
  127. D. Decreased hemoglobin
  128. B. 8th CN
  129. C. Void immediately after intercourse
  130. A. Blanching or cyanosis of legs
  131. B. Colchicines
  132. A. The client objects to its use
  133. D. Evaluation
  134. B. The symptomatic quadrant last
  135. A. 3 minutes
  136. C. Plaintiff
  137. B. Stay with the client and do nothing
  138. A. 1994
  139. B. 2001-2002
  140. D. Age
  141. B. Inner ear
  142. C. On affected side by bone conduction
  143. D. A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test
  144. A. Even, unlabored respirations
  145. B. Promote elimination of carbon dioxide
  146. A. Change in level of consciousness
  147. C. Thrombus formation
  148. B. At the same day each month
  149. B. 21 gtts/min
  150. A. 13-14 drops