Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 12

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1. During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue?

  1. Stage III
    Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.
  2. Stage IV
    A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.
  3. Stage II
    A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis.
  4. Stage I
    A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

2. During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone?

  1. Stage IV
    A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.
  2. Stage III
    A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue.
  3. Stage II
    A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis.
  4. Stage I
    A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

3. Which type of incontinence is associated with weakened perineal muscles that permit leakage of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased?

  1. Stress incontinence
    Stress incontinence may occur with coughing or sneezing.
  2. Urge incontinence
    Urge incontinence is involuntary elimination of urine associated with a strong perceived need to void.
  3. Reflex (neurogenic) incontinence
    Neurogenic incontinence is associated with a spinal cord lesion.
  4. Functional incontinence
    Functional incontinence refers to incontinence in patients with intact urinary physiology who experience mobility impairment, environmental barriers, or cognitive problems.

4. Ageism refers to

  1. Bias against older people based solely on chronological age
    Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.
  2. fear of old age.
    Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs.
  3. loss of memory.
    Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory.
  4. benign senescent forgetfulness.
    Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

5. When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status?

  1. Residual lung volume
    As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.
  2. Vital capacity
    The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity.
  3. Gas exchange and diffusing capacity
    The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation.
  4. Cough efficiency
    The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

6. According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed

  1. secondary.
    Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).
  2. primary.
    Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause.
  3. essential.
    Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause.
  4. isolated systolic.
    Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

7. Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away?

  1. Presbyopia
    Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.
  2. Presbycusis
    Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss.
  3. Cataract
    Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye.
  4. Glaucoma
    Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

8. Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning?

  1. Dementia
    Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.
  2. Depression
    Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life.
  3. Delirium
    Delirium is often called acute confusional state.
  4. Delusion
    Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

9. When a person who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to their analgesic properties, that person is said to have developed a (an)

  1. tolerance.
    Tolerance is characterized by the need for increasing dose requirements to maintain the same level of pain relief.
  2. addiction.
    Addiction refers to a behavioral pattern of substance use characterized by a compulsion to take the drug primarily to experience its psychic effects.
  3. dependence.
    Dependence occurs when a patient who has been taking opioids experiences a withdrawal syndrome when the opioids are discontinued.
  4. balanced analgesia.
    Balanced analgesia occurs when the patient is using more than one form of analgesia concurrently to obtain more pain relief with fewer side effects.

10. Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to

  1. increase sensitivity of pain receptors.
    Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin.
  2. reduce the perception of pain.
    Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain.
  3. inhibit the transmission of pain.
    Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain.
  4. inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli.
    Morphine and other opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

11. Which of the following principles or guidelines accurately informs the nurse regarding placebos?

  1. Placebos should never be used to test the person’s truthfulness about pain.
    Perception of pain is highly individualized.
  2. A placebo effect is an indication that the person does not have pain.
    A placebo effect is a true physiologic response.
  3. A placebo should be used as the first line of treatment for the patient.
    A placebo should never be used as a first line of treatment.
  4. A positive response to a placebo indicates that the person’s pain is not real.
    Reduction in pain as a response to placebo should never be interpreted as an indication that the person’s pain is not real.

12. Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that

  1. although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted.
    Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.
  2. tolerance to opioids is uncommon.
    Tolerance to opioids is common.
  3. addiction to opioids commonly develops.
    Addiction to opioids is rare.
  4. the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain.
    Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

13. The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes?

  1. Intravenous
    The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably.
  2. Epidural
    Epidural administration is used to control postoperative and chronic pain.
  3. Subcutaneous
    Subcutaneous administration results in slow absorption of medication.
  4. Intramuscular
    Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

14. Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate:

  1. Stimulation, then depression
    Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation.
  2. No change
    Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate.
  3. Stimulation, only
    Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate.
  4. Depression, only
    Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

15. Which of the following electrolytes is a major cation in body fluid?

  1. Potassium
    Potassium is a major cation that affects cardiac muscle functioning.
  2. Chloride
    Chloride is an anion.
  3. Bicarbonate
    Bicarbonate is an anion.
  4. Phosphate
    Phosphate is an anion.

16. Which of the following electrolytes is a major anion in body fluid?

  1. Chloride
    Chloride is a major anion found in extracellular fluid.
  2. Potassium
    Potassium is a cation.
  3. Sodium
    Sodium is a cation.
  4. Calcium
    Calcium is a cation.

17. Oncotic pressure refers to

  1. the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins.
    Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin.
  2. the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid.
    Osmolality refers to the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid.
  3. the excretion of substances such as glucose through increased urine output.
    Osmotic diuresis occurs when the urine output increases due to excretion of substances such as glucose.
  4. the amount of pressure needed to stop flow of water by osmosis.
    Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

18. Which of the following solutions is hypotonic?

  1. 0.45% NaCl.
    Half-strength saline is hypotonic
  2. Lactated Ringer’s solution.
    Lactated Ringer’s is isotonic.
  3. 0.9% NaCl.
    Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic.
  4. 5% NaCl.
    A solution that is 5% NaCl is hypertonic.

19. The normal serum value for potassium is

  1. 3.5-5.5 mEq/L.
    Serum potassium must be within normal limits to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.
  2. 135-145 mEq/L.
    Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L.
  3. 96-106 mEq/L.
    Normal serum chloride is 96-106 mEq/L.
  4. 8.5-10.5 mg/dL.
    Normal total serum calcium is 8.5-10.5mg/dL.

20. In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells?

  1. Distributive
    Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia.
  2. Cardiogenic
    Cardiogenic shock results from the failure of a heart as a pump.
  3. Hypovolemic
    In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in the intravascular volume.
  4. Septic
    In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

21. Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg?

  1. Progressive
    In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.
  2. Refractory
    The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.
  3. Compensatory
    In the compensatory state, the patient’s blood pressure remains within normal limits due to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and increased contractility of the heart.
  4. Irreversible
    The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

22. When the nurse observes that the patient’s systolic blood pressure is less than 80–90 mm Hg, respirations are rapid and shallow, heart rate is over 150 beats per minute, and urine output is less than 30 cc per hour, the nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which stage of shock?

  1. Compensatory
    In compensatory shock, the patient’s blood pressure is normal, respirations are above 20, and heart rate is above 100 but below 150.
  2. Progressive
    In progressive shock, the patient’s skin appears mottled and mentation demonstrates lethargy.
  3. Refractory
    In refractory or irreversible shock, the patient requires complete mechanical and pharmacologic support.
  4. Irreversible
    In refractory or irreversible shock, the patient requires complete mechanical and pharmacologic support.

23. Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart?

  1. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
    A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension.
  2. Dopamine (Intropin)
    Dopamine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output.
  3. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
    Epinephrine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output.
  4. Methoxamine (Vasoxyl)
    Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

24. The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock?

  1. Septic
    Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.
  2. Neurogenic
    Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia.
  3. Cardiogenic
    Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart.
  4. Anaphylactic
    Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

25. Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume?

  1. Albumin
    Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure.
  2. Dextran
    Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock.
  3. Lactated Ringers
    Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid.
  4. Hypertonic Saline
    Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

26. Which of the following terms refers to cells that lack normal cellular characteristics and differ in shape and organization with respect to their cells of origin?

  1. Anaplasia
    Usually, anaplastic cells are malignant.
  2. Neoplasia
    Neoplasia refers to uncontrolled cell growth that follows no physiologic demand.
  3. Dysplasia
    Dysplasia refers to bizarre cell growth resulting in cells that differ in size, shape, or arrangement from other cells of the same type of tissue.
  4. Hyperplasia
    Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells of a tissue, most often associated with a period of rapid body growth.

27. Palliation refers to

  1. relief of symptoms associated with cancer.
    Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.
  2. hair loss.
    Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss.
  3. the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites.
    Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites.
  4. the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.
    Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

28. During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior?

  1. Progression
    During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.
  2. Promotion
    During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods.
  3. Initiation
    During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA.
  4. Prolongation
    No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

29. The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier?

  1. Cytokine
    Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.
  2. Monoclonal antibodies
    Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab.
  3. Retinoids
    Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid.
  4. Antimetabolites
    Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

30. Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place?

  1. Bereavement
    Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place.
  2. Grief
    Grief is the personal feelings that accompany an anticipated or actual loss
  3. Mourning
    Mourning is the individual, family, group and cultural expressions of grief and associated behaviors
  4. Hospice                                                                                                                                          Hospice is a coordinated program of interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and   their families.

31. Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise?

  1. Mutual pretense awareness
    In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise.
  2. Closed awareness
    In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware.
  3. Suspected awareness
    In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out.
  4. Open awareness
    In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

32. For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death:

  1. Increased restlessness
    As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.
  2. Increased wakefulness
    As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment.
  3. Increased eating
    For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die.
  4. Increased urinary output
    Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

33. Which of the following terms best describes a living will?

  1. Medical directive
    The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences.
  2. Proxy directive
    A proxy directive is the appointment and authorization of another individual to make medical decisions on behalf of the person who created anadvance directive when he/she is no loner able to speak for him/herself.
  3. Health care power of attorney
    Health care power of attorney is a legal document that enables the signer to designate another individual to make health care decisions on his/her behalf when he/she is unable to do so.
  4. Durable power of attorney for health
    A durable power of attorney for health care is a legal document that enables the signer to designate another individual to make health care decisions on his/her behalf when he/she is unable to do so.

34. A malignant tumor

  1. gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels.
    By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.
  2. demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated.
    Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated.
  3. is usually slow growing.
    Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth.
  4. grows by expansion.
    A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

35. Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell–cycle-specific?

  1. Antimetabolites (5-FU)
    Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).
  2. Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin)
    Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific.
  3. Alkylating agents (cisplatin)
    Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific.
  4. Nitrosureas (carmustine)
    Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

36. Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience?

  1. Perioperative phase
    Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases.
  2. Preoperative phase
    Preoperative phase is the period of time from when the decision for surgical intervention is made to when the patient is transferred to the operating room table.
  3. Intraoperative phase
    Intraoperataive phase is the period of time from when the patient is transferred to the operating room table to when he or she is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit.
  4. Postoperative phase
    Postoperative phase is the period of time that begins with the admission of the patient to the postanesthesia care unit and ends after a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home.

37. When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as

  1. emergency.
    Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.
  2. urgent.
    Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours.
  3. required.
    Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months.
  4. elective.
    Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

38. When a person with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for surgery, the nurse anticipates that the patient may show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium during which time period?

  1. Up to 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal
    Alcohol withdrawal delirium is associated with a significant mortality rate when it occurs postoperatively.
  2. Immediately upon admission
    Onset of symptoms depends upon time of last consumption of alcohol.
  3. Upon awakening in the post-anesthesia care unit
    Onset of symptoms depends upon time of last consumption of alcohol.
  4. Up to 24 hours after alcohol withdrawal
    Twenty-four hours is too short a time frame to consider alcohol withdrawal delirium no longer a threat to a chronic alcoholic.

39. Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly?

  1. Tranquilizers
    Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.
  2. Adrenal corticosteroids
    Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse.
  3. Antidepressants
    Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics.
  4. Diuretics
    Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

40. When the patient is encouraged to concentrate on a pleasant experience or restful scene, the cognitive coping strategy being employed by the nurse is

  1. imagery.
    Imagery has proven effective for oncology patients.
  2. optimistic self-recitation.
    Optimistic self-recitation is practiced when the patient is encouraged to recite optimistic thoughts such as “I know all will go well.”
  3. distraction.
    Distraction is employed when the patient is encouraged to think of an enjoyable story or recite a favorite poem.
  4. progressive muscular relaxation.                                                                                                 Progressive muscular relaxation requires contracting and relaxing muscle groups and is a physical coping strategy as opposed to cognitive.

41. According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification

  1. P3
    Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.
  2. P4
    Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
  3. P1
    Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient
  4. P2
    Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

42. Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia?

  1. III
    With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.
  2. I
    Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment.
  3. II
    Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying.
  4. IV
    Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

43. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent?

  1. Neuroleptanalgesic
    Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).
  2. Tranquilizer
    Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium).
  3. Opioid
    Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol).
  4. Dissociative agent
    Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

44. Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia?

  1. Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute)
    Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.
  2. Hypotension
    Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.
  3. Elevated temperature
    The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly.
  4. Oliguria
    Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

45. Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision?

  1. Evisceration
    Evisceration is a surgical emergency.
  2. Hernia
    A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall.
  3. Dehiscence
    Dehiscence refers to partial or complete separation of wound edges.
  4. Erythema
    Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

46. When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed

  1. second intention healing.
    When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.
  2. primary intention healing.
    Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.
  3. first intention healing.
    Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.
  4. third intention healing.
    Third intention healing is a method of healing in which surgical approximation of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

47. The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock?

  1. Rapid, weak, thready pulse
    Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.
  2. Flushed face
    Pallor is an indicator of shock.
  3. Warm, dry skin
    Skin is generally cool and moist in shock.
  4. Increased urine output
    Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

48. When the nurse observes that the postoperative patient demonstrates a constant low level of oxygen saturation, although the patient’s breathing appears normal, the nurse identifies that the patient may be suffering which type of hypoxemia?

  1. Subacute
    Supplemental oxygen may be indicated.
  2. Hypoxic
    Hypoxic hypoxemia results from inadequate breathing.
  3. Episodic
    Episodic hypoxemia develops suddenly, and the patient may be at risk for myocardial ischemia, cerebral dysfunction, and cardiac arrest.
  4. Anemic
    Anemic hypoxemia results from blood loss during surgery.

49. When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as

  1. clean contaminated.
    Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.
  2. clean.
    Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection.
  3. contaminated.
    Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection.
  4. dirty.
    A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

50. Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position?

  1. Orthopnea
    Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.
  2. Dyspnea
    Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath.
  3. Hemoptysis
    Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract.
  4. Hypoxemia                                                                                                                                       Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.