Practice Mode – Questions and choices are randomly arranged, the answer is revealed instantly after each question, and there is no time limit for the exam.
Exam Mode – Questions and choices are randomly arranged, time limit of 1min per question, answers and grade will be revealed after finishing the exam.
Text Mode – Text version of the exam 1. When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a 2. Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? 3. Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the following microorganisms? 4. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? 5. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include 6. The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? 7. Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? 8. Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the 9. A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is 10. Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? 11. Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? 12. The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? 13. The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? 14. When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as 15. When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as 16. A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture 17. The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is 18. When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of 19. Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? 20. The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects 21. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the 22. With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is 23. Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? 24. The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is 25. The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is 26. Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? 27. The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when 28. Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? 29. Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of 30. If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should 31. The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a 32. Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? 33. Bubonic plague occurs 34. The term given to the category of triage that refers to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is 35. When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires 36. Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? 37. Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? 38. Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested 39. Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? 40. When preparing for an emergency bioterroism drill, the nurse instructs the drill volunteers that each biological agents requires specific patient management and medications to combat the virus, bacteria, or toxin. Which of the following statements reflect the patient management of variola virus (small pox)? 41. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? 42. Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? 43. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning 44. Treatment of an acetaminophen overdose includes the administration of 45. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? 46. During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has 47. If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? 48. Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation? 49. Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress? 50. The first step in decontamination isPractice Mode
Exam Mode
Text Mode
Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.
Hammertoes are usually pulled upward.
Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot.
In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.
Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.
Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.
Osteoporosis is characterized by reduction of total bone mass and a change in bone structure which increases susceptibility to fracture.
Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.
Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.
While Proteus species are frequently found in osteomyelitis, they do not cause the majority of bone infections.
While Pseudomonas species are frequently found in osteomyelitis, they do not cause the majority of bone infections.
While E. coli is frequently found in osteomyelitis, it does not cause the majority of bone infections
Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Plantar fasciitis, an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia, presents as an acute onset of heel pain experienced with the first steps in the morning. The pain is localized to the anterior medial aspect of the heel and diminishes with gentle stretching of the foot and Achilles tendon.
Plantar fasciitis, an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia, presents as an acute onset of heel pain experienced with the first steps in the morning. The pain is localized to the anterior medial aspect of the heel and diminishes with gentle stretching of the foot and Achilles tendon.
Unresolved plantar fasciitis may progress to fascial tears at the heel and eventual development of heel spurs.
Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.
Lack of weight-bearing exercise, not aerobic exercise, is a lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis.
A low calcium and vitamin D diet, not a low protein, high fat diet, is a lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis.
An estrogen deficiency or menopause is an individual, not lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis. Other individual risk factors include female gender, white non-Hispanic or Asian race, increased age, low weight and body mass index, family history of osteoporosis, low initial bone mass, and contributing co-existing medical conditions and medications.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake,
walking or exercising out of doors, smoking cessation, consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake,
walking or exercising out of doors, smoking cessation, consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.
When lifting, the patient with low back pain should keep the load close to the body.
When lifting, the patient with low back pain should use a wide base of support.
When lifting, the patient with low back pain should bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles.
Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.
Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.
Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.
Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.
Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.
Osteoporosis is characterized by reduction of total bone mass and a change in bone structure which increases susceptibility to fracture.
Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.
Osteoarthritis (OA), also known as degenerative joint disease, is the most common and frequently disabling of the joint disorders. OA affects the articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium.
A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.
Dislocation refers to the separation of joint surfaces.
Subluxation refers to partial separation or dislocation of joint surfaces.
When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.
Dislocation refers to the separation of joint surfaces.
Subluxation refers to partial separation or dislocation of joint surfaces.
Malunion refers to growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.
RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.
While circulation problems must be examined, the RICE treatment does not refer to circulation and examination.
Rotation of a joint is contraindicated when injury is suspected, and immersion of the area may be anatomically difficult.
Rotation of a joint is contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.
The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.
A strain is treated by RICE.
A sprain is treated by RICE.
Avascular necrosis describes death of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.
A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.
A compound fracture is one in which damage also involves the skin or mucous membranes.
A depressed fracture is one in which fragments are driven inward.
An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.
Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.
A compound fracture is one in which damage also involves the skin or mucous membranes.
A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone has splintered into several pieces.
An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.
Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.
An avulsion fracture results in a pulling away of a fragment of bone by a ligament or tendon and its attachment.
A greenstick fracture presents as one side of the bone being broken and the other side being bent.
A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.
Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.
Infection is not a common complication of arthroscopy.
Complaints of the knee giving way are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.
Complaints of the knee locking are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.
RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.
Avascular necrosis is manifested by pain and limited movement.
Pain and decreased function are the prime indicators of reaction to an internal fixation device.
Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.
A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.
A spiral fracture is a fracture twisting around the shaft of the bone.
An avulsion is the pulling away of a fragment of bone by a ligament or tendon and its attachment.
An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.
Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.
With compartment syndrome, the patient complains of deep, throbbing, unrelenting pain.
With hypovolemic shock, the patient would have a decreased blood pressure and increased pulse rate.
A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.
A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.
A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.
A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.
With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is shortened, adducted, and externally rotated.
With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is shortened, adducted, and externally rotated.
With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is shortened, adducted, and externally rotated.
With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is shortened, adducted, and externally rotated.
A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.
A primary bloodstream infection is bacteremia or fungemia, which occurs without infection, identified at another anatomic site.
A secondary bloodstream infection is bacteremia of fungemia of another anatomic site, which serves as a source for bloodstream contamination.
Emerging infectious diseases refer to diseases of infectious origin of which incidence in humans has increased within the past two decades or threaten to increase in the near future.
HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.
The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 3-6 months.
The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 1 year.
The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 5 years.
Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.
The incubation period for hepatitis B is 45-160 days.
The incubation period for hepatitis B is shorter than 6-9 months.
The incubation periods for hepatitis D, E, and G are unclear.
Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.
A susceptible host is a host who does not possess immunity to a particular pathogen.
An immune host is a host who is not susceptible to a particular pathogen.
Infection refers to host interaction with an organism.
When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.
The child remains contagious when the rash is present.
The child remains contagious if the fever occurs as the rash is progressing.
The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.
Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient hasmeningitis symptoms.
The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.
Most human infections are asymptomatic. When symptoms are present, headache and fever are most frequently reported. Less than one percent of those infected develop more severe illness, including meningitis.
Birds are the natural reservoir for the virus. Mosquitoes become infected when feeding on birds and can transmit the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.
Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.
Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic
Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic
Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic
Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.
The CDC will provide diagnostic support and will release the vaccine if the patient is confirmed to have smallpox.
Isolation with negative pressure should be established.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
A mode of entry to the host, not a mode of exit from the host, is necessary for infection.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.
No antivirals have been approved or show promise against the viruses. Treatment must be largely supportive maintenance of the circulatory system and respiratory systems. It is likely that the infected patient would need ventilator and dialysis support through the acute phases of illness.
The viruses can be spread by exposure to blood or other body fluid, insect bite, and mucous membrane exposure.
Symptoms include fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.
Bubonic refers to enlarged lymph nodes that develop after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.
Pneumonic plague occurs after the organism is inhaled. Only pneumonic plague can be contagious from person to person by an airborne route.
Septicemic plague occurs when the organism causes a bloodstream infection usually secondary to either pneumonic or bubonic, but sometimes without either entity.
Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.
The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.
The triage category of urgent refers to minor illness or injury needing first-aid-level treatment.
The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-life-threatening injury or illness.
The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-life-threatening injury or illness.
When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fast-track or psychological support needs.
Field triaged patients who require emergent care will be categorized as red.
Field triaged patients who require immediate care will be categorized as yellow.
Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.
The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.
The nurse should avoid using euphemisms such as passed on.
The nurse should avoid giving sedation to family members, since this may mask or delay the grieving process.
The nurse should avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).
Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.
O negative blood is prepared for emergency use in women of childbearing age.
Dextrose 5% in water should not be used to replace fluids in hypovolemic patients.
Hypertonic saline is used only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.
Overdose of aspirin should be treated with emesis or lavage, followed by ingestion of activated charcoal to absorb the aspirin.
Rust remover is an alkaline product, which is corrosive, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
Gasoline is a petroleum distillate, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
Toilet bowl cleaners are corrosive, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.
The acute disorganization phase is characterized by shock, disbelief, guilt, humiliation, and anger.
The denial phase is characterized by an unwillingness to talk.
The reorganization phase occurs when the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.
Small pox is spread by droplet or direct contact. There are no antiviral agents effective against small pox, however vaccination within two to three days of exposure is protective.
There are no antiviral agents effective against small pox; however, vaccination within two to three days of exposure is protective.
Small pox is spread by droplet or direct contact. It spreads rapidly and requires immediate isolation. Even in death, the disease can be transmitted.
Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.
Anthracis is a spore forming bacteria resulting in gastrointestinal, pulmonary, and skin symptoms. Symptoms are dependent upon contact, ingestion, or inhalation of the spores. Routine universal precautions are effective. Anthrax survives in the spore form for long periods making the body a potential source of infection for morticians.
Blood cultures are required to confirm the bacteria’s presence and diagnosis.
The pulmonary effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within 24-36 hours after exposure.
Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.
Blunt trauma is commonly associated with extra-abdominal injuries to the chest, head, or extremities.
Penetrating abdominal injuries include those such as gunshot wounds and stab wounds.
Intra-abdominal injuries are categorized as penetrating and blunt trauma.
A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.
A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.
A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.
The skin coloring in the patient with carbon monoxide poisoning can range from pink to cherry red to cynanotic and pale and is not a reliable diagnostic sign.
Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes administration of N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Flumazenil is administered in the treatment of nonbarbituate sedative overdoses.
Naloxone (Narcan) is administered in the treatment of narcotic overdoses.
Diazepam (Valium) may be administered to treat uncontrolled hyperactivity in the patient with a hallucinogen overdose.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
A red triage tag (priority 1 or immediate) indicates injuries that are life-threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
A yellow triage tag (priority 2 or delayed) indicates injuries that are significant and require medical care, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb.
A black triage tag (priority 4 or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
The Incident Command System (ICS) is a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment and communication for any emergency situation. The federal government mandates that the ICS be used during emergencies. Under this structure, one person is designated as incident commander. This person must be continuously informed of all activities and informed about any deviation from the established plan. While the ICS is primarily a field structure and process, aspects of it are used at the level of an individual hospital’s emergency response plan as well.
Office of Emergency Management (OEM) coordinates the disaster relief efforts at the state and local levels. The OEM is responsible for providing interagency coordination during an emergency. It maintains a corps of emergency management personnel, including responders, planners, and administrative and support staff.
National Disaster Medical System (NDMS). The NDMS has many medical support teams such as Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMATs) that provide medical personnel to set up and staff a field hospital.
The Hospital Emergency Preparedness Plan is a facility-specific plan for emergency preparedness required by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO).
Defusing is a process by which the individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress. It is a component of critical incident stress management (CISM).
Debriefing is a more complicated intervention of critical incident stress management (CISM); it involves 2- to 3- hour process during which participants are asked about their emotional reactions to the incident, what symptoms they may be experiencing (e.g., flashbacks, difficulty sleeping, intrusive thoughts) and other psychological ramifications.
In follow-up, members of the critical incident stress management (CISM) team contact the participants of a debriefing and schedule a follow-up meeting if necessary. People with ongoing stress reactions are referred to mental health specialists.
Critical incident stress management (CISM) is an approach to preventing and treating the emotional trauma that can affect emergency responders as a consequence of their jobs but that can also occur to anyone involved in a disaster or mass casualty incident.
To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.
A thorough soap and water wash and rinse of the patient is the second step in the decontamination process. The first is to remove the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water.
To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.
Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 20
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