Practice Mode– Questions and choices are randomly arranged, the answer is revealed instantly after each question, and there is no time limit for the exam.
NCLEX- PN Practice Exam 1 (PM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX- PN Practice Exam 1 (PM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The nurse is teaching a group of parents about gross motor development of the toddler. Which behavior is an example of the normal gross motor skill of a toddler?
A
She can pull a toy behind her.
B
She can broad-jump.
C
She can copy a horizontal line.
D
She can build a tower of eight blocks.
Question 1 Explanation:
According to the Denver Developmental Screening Test, the child can pull a toy behind her by age 2 years. Other answer choices are not accomplished until ages 4–5 years; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 2
Which of the following findings is associated with right-sided heart failure?
A
Crackles in the lungs
B
Daytime oliguria
C
Shortness of breath
D
Nocturnal polyuria
Question 2 Explanation:
Increased voiding at night is a symptom of right-sided heart failure. Shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs are incorrect because they are symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Daytime oliguria does not relate to the client’s diagnosis; therefore, it is incorrect.
Question 3
A client hospitalized with a fractured mandible is to be discharged. Which piece of equipment should be kept on the client with a fractured mandible?
A
Tracheostomy set
B
Pliers
C
Wire cutters
D
Oral airway
Question 3 Explanation:
The client with a fractured mandible should keep a pair of wire cutters with him at all times to release the device in case of choking or aspiration. Oral airway is incorrect because the wires would prevent insertion of an oral airway. Pliers is incorrect because it would be of no use in releasing the wires. Tracheostomy set is incorrect because it would be used only as a last resort in case of airway obstruction.
Question 4
The best diet for the client with Meniere’s syndrome is one that is:
A
Low in sodium
B
High in iodine
C
High in fiber
D
Low in fiber
Question 4 Explanation:
A low-sodium diet is best for the client with Meniere’s syndrome. Other answer choices do not relate to the care of the client with Meniere’s syndrome; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 5
An infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is discharged with a prescription for lanoxin elixir. The nurse should instruct the mother to:
A
Administer the medication using a nipple
B
Administer the medication in a baby bottle with 1oz. of water
C
Administer the medication using a plastic baby spoon
D
Administer the medication using the calibrated dropper in the bottle
Question 5 Explanation:
The medication should be administered using the calibrated dropper that comes with the medication. Administering the medication using a nipple and administering the medication using a plastic baby spoon are incorrect because part or all of the medication could be lost during administration. Administering the medication in a baby bottle with 1oz. of water is incorrect because part or all of the medication will be lost if the child does not finish the bottle.
Question 6
The physician has ordered dressings with Sulfamylon cream for a client with full-thickness burns of the hands and arms. Before dressing changes, the nurse should give priority to:
A
Administering pain medication
B
Obtaining a blood glucose by finger stick
C
Requesting a daily complete blood count
D
Checking the adequacy of urinary output
Question 6 Explanation:
Sulfamylon produces a painful sensation when applied to the burn wound; therefore, the client should receive pain medication before dressing changes. Other answer choices do not pertain to dressing changes for the client with burns, so they are incorrect.
Question 7
A client with glaucoma has been prescribed Timoptic (timolol) eyedrops. Timoptic should be used with caution in the client with a history of:
A
Emphysema
B
Gastric ulcers
C
Diabetes
D
Pancreatitis
Question 7 Explanation:
Beta blockers such as timolol (Timoptic) can cause bronchospasms in the client with chronic obstructive lung disease. Timoptic is not contraindicated for use in clients with diabetes, gastric ulcers, or pancreatitis.
Question 8
Which of the following medication orders needs further clarification?
A
Coumadin 10mg PO
B
Darvocet 65mg PO q 4–6 hrs. PRN
C
Nembutal 100mg PO at bedtime
D
Estrace 2mg PO q day
Question 8 Explanation:
There is no specified time or frequency for the ordered medication. Other answer choices contain specified time and frequency.
Question 9
Which information should be given to the client taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?
A
More frequent dental appointments will be needed for special gum care.
B
The medication decreases the effects of oral contraceptives.
C
Taking the medication with meals will increase its effectiveness.
D
The medication can cause sleep disturbances.
Question 9 Explanation:
Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of phenytoin. The client will need more frequent dental visits. Other answer choices do not apply to the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 10
A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client’s record, the nurse could expect to find:
A
A history of consistent employment
B
A below-average intelligence
C
A history of cruelty to animals
D
An expression of remorse for his actions
Question 10 Explanation:
A history of cruelty to people and animals, truancy, setting fires, and lack of guilt or remorse are associated with a diagnosis of conduct disorder in children, which becomes a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder in adults. The client with antisocial personality disorder does not hold consistent employment, IQ is usually higher than average and lack of guilt or remorse for wrong-doing.
Question 11
An 8-year-old admitted with an upper-respiratory infection has an order for O2 saturation via pulse oximeter. To ensure an accurate reading, the nurse should:
A
Place the probe on the child’s finger
B
Apply the probe and wait 15 minutes before obtaining a reading
C
Recalibrate the oximeter at the beginning of each shift
D
Place the probe on the child’s abdomen
Question 11 Explanation:
The pulse oximeter should be placed on the child’s finger or earlobe because blood flow to these areas is most accessible for measuring oxygen concentration. Placing the probe on the child’s abdomen is incorrect because the probe cannot be secured to the abdomen. Recalibrating the oximeter at the beginning of each shift is incorrect because it should be recalibrated before application. Applying the probe and wait 15 minutes before obtaining a reading is incorrect because a reading is obtained within seconds, not minutes.
Question 12
Which of the following snacks would be suitable for the child with gluten-induced enteropathy?
A
Soft oatmeal cookie
B
Cheese pizza
C
Buttered popcorn
D
Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
Question 12 Explanation:
The client with gluten-induced enteropathy experiences symptoms after ingesting foods containing wheat, oats, barley, or rye. Corn or millet are substituted in the diet. Other answer choices are incorrect because they contain foods that worsen the client’s condition.
Question 13
A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide is instructed to increase her dietary intake of potassium. The best snack for the client requiring increased potassium is:
A
Apple
B
Orange
C
Banana
D
Pear
Question 13 Explanation:
Other answer choices are incorrect because they contain lower amounts of potassium. (Note that the banana contains 450mg K+, the orange contains 235mg K+, the pear contains 208mg K+, and the apple contains 165mg K+.)
Question 14
The licensed vocational nurse may not assume the primary care for a client:
A
With bipolar disorder
B
In the fourth stage of labor
C
With a venous access device
D
Two days post-appendectomy
Question 14 Explanation:
The licensed vocational nurse may not assume primary care of the client with a central venous access device. The licensed vocational nurse may care for the client in labor, the client post-operative client, and the client with bipolar disorder.
Question 15
A client with schizophrenia is receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 400mg twice a day. An adverse side effect of the medication is:
A
Weight gain
B
Photosensitivity
C
Elevated temperature
D
Elevated blood pressure
Question 15 Explanation:
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse reaction that is characterized by extreme elevations in temperature. Photosensitivity and weight gain are incorrect because they are expected side effects. Elevations in blood pressure are associated with reactions between foods containing tyramine and MAOI.
Question 16
Which of the following skin lesions is associated with Lyme’s disease?
A
Bull’s eye rash
B
Plaques
C
Papular crusts
D
Bullae
Question 16 Explanation:
Lyme’s disease produces a characteristic annular or circular rash sometimes described as a "bull’s eye" rash. Other answer choices are incorrect because they are not symptoms associated with Lyme’s disease.
Question 17
The nurse is to administer digoxin elixir to a 6-month-old with a congenital heart defect. The nurse auscultates an apical pulse rate of The nurse should:
A
Hold the medication and recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
B
Administer the medication and recheck the heart rate in 15 minutes
C
Record the heart rate and administer the medication
D
Record the heart rate and call the physician
Question 17 Explanation:
The infant’s apical heart rate is within the accepted range for administering the medication. Other answer choices are incorrect because the apical heart rate is suitable for giving the medication.
Question 18
A client hospitalized with severe depression and suicidal ideation refuses to talk with the nurse. The nurse recognizes that the suicidal client has difficulty:
A
Discussing remorse and guilt for actions
B
Expressing feelings of low self-worth
C
Expressing anger toward others
D
Displaying dependence on others
Question 18 Explanation:
The suicidal client has difficulty expressing anger toward others. The depressed suicidal client frequently expresses feelings of low self-worth, feelings of remorse and guilt, and a dependence on others.
Question 19
The nurse is caring for a client following removal of the thyroid. Immediately post-op, the nurse should:
A
Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with the head and neck supported by pillows
B
Maintain the client in a supine position with sandbags placed on either side of the head and neck
C
Encourage the client to turn her head side to side, to promote drainage of oral secretions
D
Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply every 2 hours, with the neck in a flexed position
Question 19 Explanation:
Following a thyroidectomy, the client should be placed in semi-Fowler’s position to decrease swelling that would place pressure on the airway. Other answer choices are incorrect because they would increase the chances of post-operative complications that include bleeding, swelling, and airway obstruction.
Question 20
A mother of a 3-year-old hospitalized with lead poisoning asks the nurse to explain the treatment for her daughter. The nurse’s explanation is based on the knowledge that lead poisoning is treated with:
A
Gastric lavage
B
Chelating agents
C
Antiemetics
D
Activated charcoal
Question 20 Explanation:
Chelating agents are used to treat the client with poisonings from heavy metals such as lead and iron. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal are used to remove noncorrosive poisons; therefore, they are incorrect. Antiemetics prevents vomiting; therefore, it is an incorrect response.
Question 21
Which of the following is a common complaint of the client with end-stage renal failure?
A
Ringing in the ears
B
Bruising
C
Itching
D
Weight loss
Question 21 Explanation:
Pruritis or itching is caused by the presence of uric acid crystals on the skin, which is common in the client with end-stage renal failure. Other answer choices are not associated with end-stage renal failure.
Question 22
The client scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy tells the nurse, "I’m so afraid. What will happen to me during the treatment?" Which of the following statements is most therapeutic for the nurse to make?
A
"You can expect to be sleepy and confused for a time after the treatment."
B
"You will be given medicine to relax you during the treatment."
C
"The treatment will produce a controlled grand mal seizure."
D
"The treatment might produce nausea and headache."
Question 22 Explanation:
The client will receive medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and produces mild sedation. "The treatment will produce a controlled grand mal seizure." and "You can expect to be sleepy and confused for a time after the treatment." statements are incorrect because it increase the client’s anxiety level. Nausea and headache are not associated with ECT.
Question 23
A client hospitalized with chronic dyspepsia is diagnosed with gastric cancer. Which of the following is associated with an increased incidence of gastric cancer?
A
Carbonated beverages
B
Dairy products
C
Refined sugars
D
Luncheon meats
Question 23 Explanation:
Luncheon meats contain preservatives such as nitrites that have been linked to gastric cancer. Other answer choices have not been found to increase the risk of gastric cancer; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 24
An 18-month-old is scheduled for a cleft palate repair. The usual type of restraints for the child with a cleft palate repair are:
A
Elbow restraints
B
Wrist restraints
C
Mummy restraints
D
Full arm restraints
Question 24 Explanation:
The least restrictive restraint for the infant with cleft lip and cleft palate repair is elbow restraints. Other answer choices are more restrictive and unnecessary; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 25
An elderly client who experiences nighttime confusion wanders from his room into the room of another client. The nurse can best help decrease the client’s confusion by:
A
Administering a bedtime sedative
B
Allowing the client to room with another elderly client
C
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts
D
Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep
Question 25 Explanation:
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts helps the client remain oriented to the environment and fosters independence. Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep and allowing the client to room with another elderly client will not decrease the client’s confusion. Administering a bedtime sedative will increase the likelihood of confusion in an elderly client.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
Get Results
There are 25 questions to complete.
←
List
→
Return
Shaded items are complete.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
End
Return
You have completed
questions
question
Your score is
Correct
Wrong
Partial-Credit
You have not finished your quiz. If you leave this page, your progress will be lost.
Correct Answer
You Selected
Not Attempted
Final Score on Quiz
Attempted Questions Correct
Attempted Questions Wrong
Questions Not Attempted
Total Questions on Quiz
Question Details
Results
Date
Score
Hint
Time allowed
minutes
seconds
Time used
Answer Choice(s) Selected
Question Text
All done
Need more practice!
Keep trying!
Not bad!
Good work!
Perfect!
Exam Mode
Exam Mode – Questions and choices are randomly arranged, time limit of 1min per question, answers and grade will be revealed after finishing the exam.
NCLEX- PN Practice Exam 1 (EM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 25 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX- PN Practice Exam 1 (EM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following findings is associated with right-sided heart failure?
A
Nocturnal polyuria
B
Daytime oliguria
C
Crackles in the lungs
D
Shortness of breath
Question 1 Explanation:
Increased voiding at night is a symptom of right-sided heart failure. Shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs are incorrect because they are symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Daytime oliguria does not relate to the client’s diagnosis; therefore, it is incorrect.
Question 2
Which of the following medication orders needs further clarification?
A
Nembutal 100mg PO at bedtime
B
Darvocet 65mg PO q 4–6 hrs. PRN
C
Estrace 2mg PO q day
D
Coumadin 10mg PO
Question 2 Explanation:
There is no specified time or frequency for the ordered medication. Other answer choices contain specified time and frequency.
Question 3
Which of the following skin lesions is associated with Lyme’s disease?
A
Papular crusts
B
Bull’s eye rash
C
Bullae
D
Plaques
Question 3 Explanation:
Lyme’s disease produces a characteristic annular or circular rash sometimes described as a "bull’s eye" rash. Other answer choices are incorrect because they are not symptoms associated with Lyme’s disease.
Question 4
A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide is instructed to increase her dietary intake of potassium. The best snack for the client requiring increased potassium is:
A
Orange
B
Pear
C
Apple
D
Banana
Question 4 Explanation:
Other answer choices are incorrect because they contain lower amounts of potassium. (Note that the banana contains 450mg K+, the orange contains 235mg K+, the pear contains 208mg K+, and the apple contains 165mg K+.)
Question 5
A client hospitalized with chronic dyspepsia is diagnosed with gastric cancer. Which of the following is associated with an increased incidence of gastric cancer?
A
Carbonated beverages
B
Luncheon meats
C
Refined sugars
D
Dairy products
Question 5 Explanation:
Luncheon meats contain preservatives such as nitrites that have been linked to gastric cancer. Other answer choices have not been found to increase the risk of gastric cancer; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 6
The nurse is to administer digoxin elixir to a 6-month-old with a congenital heart defect. The nurse auscultates an apical pulse rate of The nurse should:
A
Record the heart rate and call the physician
B
Record the heart rate and administer the medication
C
Administer the medication and recheck the heart rate in 15 minutes
D
Hold the medication and recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
Question 6 Explanation:
The infant’s apical heart rate is within the accepted range for administering the medication. Other answer choices are incorrect because the apical heart rate is suitable for giving the medication.
Question 7
A mother of a 3-year-old hospitalized with lead poisoning asks the nurse to explain the treatment for her daughter. The nurse’s explanation is based on the knowledge that lead poisoning is treated with:
A
Activated charcoal
B
Gastric lavage
C
Chelating agents
D
Antiemetics
Question 7 Explanation:
Chelating agents are used to treat the client with poisonings from heavy metals such as lead and iron. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal are used to remove noncorrosive poisons; therefore, they are incorrect. Antiemetics prevents vomiting; therefore, it is an incorrect response.
Question 8
The licensed vocational nurse may not assume the primary care for a client:
A
In the fourth stage of labor
B
With bipolar disorder
C
Two days post-appendectomy
D
With a venous access device
Question 8 Explanation:
The licensed vocational nurse may not assume primary care of the client with a central venous access device. The licensed vocational nurse may care for the client in labor, the client post-operative client, and the client with bipolar disorder.
Question 9
Which information should be given to the client taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?
A
The medication decreases the effects of oral contraceptives.
B
The medication can cause sleep disturbances.
C
Taking the medication with meals will increase its effectiveness.
D
More frequent dental appointments will be needed for special gum care.
Question 9 Explanation:
Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of phenytoin. The client will need more frequent dental visits. Other answer choices do not apply to the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 10
A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client’s record, the nurse could expect to find:
A
A history of cruelty to animals
B
A below-average intelligence
C
An expression of remorse for his actions
D
A history of consistent employment
Question 10 Explanation:
A history of cruelty to people and animals, truancy, setting fires, and lack of guilt or remorse are associated with a diagnosis of conduct disorder in children, which becomes a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder in adults. The client with antisocial personality disorder does not hold consistent employment, IQ is usually higher than average and lack of guilt or remorse for wrong-doing.
Question 11
An infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is discharged with a prescription for lanoxin elixir. The nurse should instruct the mother to:
A
Administer the medication in a baby bottle with 1oz. of water
B
Administer the medication using a plastic baby spoon
C
Administer the medication using the calibrated dropper in the bottle
D
Administer the medication using a nipple
Question 11 Explanation:
The medication should be administered using the calibrated dropper that comes with the medication. Administering the medication using a nipple and administering the medication using a plastic baby spoon are incorrect because part or all of the medication could be lost during administration. Administering the medication in a baby bottle with 1oz. of water is incorrect because part or all of the medication will be lost if the child does not finish the bottle.
Question 12
An 8-year-old admitted with an upper-respiratory infection has an order for O2 saturation via pulse oximeter. To ensure an accurate reading, the nurse should:
A
Place the probe on the child’s finger
B
Place the probe on the child’s abdomen
C
Recalibrate the oximeter at the beginning of each shift
D
Apply the probe and wait 15 minutes before obtaining a reading
Question 12 Explanation:
The pulse oximeter should be placed on the child’s finger or earlobe because blood flow to these areas is most accessible for measuring oxygen concentration. Placing the probe on the child’s abdomen is incorrect because the probe cannot be secured to the abdomen. Recalibrating the oximeter at the beginning of each shift is incorrect because it should be recalibrated before application. Applying the probe and wait 15 minutes before obtaining a reading is incorrect because a reading is obtained within seconds, not minutes.
Question 13
Which of the following is a common complaint of the client with end-stage renal failure?
A
Bruising
B
Itching
C
Ringing in the ears
D
Weight loss
Question 13 Explanation:
Pruritis or itching is caused by the presence of uric acid crystals on the skin, which is common in the client with end-stage renal failure. Other answer choices are not associated with end-stage renal failure.
Question 14
The physician has ordered dressings with Sulfamylon cream for a client with full-thickness burns of the hands and arms. Before dressing changes, the nurse should give priority to:
A
Administering pain medication
B
Obtaining a blood glucose by finger stick
C
Requesting a daily complete blood count
D
Checking the adequacy of urinary output
Question 14 Explanation:
Sulfamylon produces a painful sensation when applied to the burn wound; therefore, the client should receive pain medication before dressing changes. Other answer choices do not pertain to dressing changes for the client with burns, so they are incorrect.
Question 15
The nurse is caring for a client following removal of the thyroid. Immediately post-op, the nurse should:
A
Maintain the client in a supine position with sandbags placed on either side of the head and neck
B
Encourage the client to turn her head side to side, to promote drainage of oral secretions
C
Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with the head and neck supported by pillows
D
Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply every 2 hours, with the neck in a flexed position
Question 15 Explanation:
Following a thyroidectomy, the client should be placed in semi-Fowler’s position to decrease swelling that would place pressure on the airway. Other answer choices are incorrect because they would increase the chances of post-operative complications that include bleeding, swelling, and airway obstruction.
Question 16
A client with glaucoma has been prescribed Timoptic (timolol) eyedrops. Timoptic should be used with caution in the client with a history of:
A
Gastric ulcers
B
Diabetes
C
Pancreatitis
D
Emphysema
Question 16 Explanation:
Beta blockers such as timolol (Timoptic) can cause bronchospasms in the client with chronic obstructive lung disease. Timoptic is not contraindicated for use in clients with diabetes, gastric ulcers, or pancreatitis.
Question 17
Which of the following snacks would be suitable for the child with gluten-induced enteropathy?
A
Cheese pizza
B
Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
C
Soft oatmeal cookie
D
Buttered popcorn
Question 17 Explanation:
The client with gluten-induced enteropathy experiences symptoms after ingesting foods containing wheat, oats, barley, or rye. Corn or millet are substituted in the diet. Other answer choices are incorrect because they contain foods that worsen the client’s condition.
Question 18
A client hospitalized with a fractured mandible is to be discharged. Which piece of equipment should be kept on the client with a fractured mandible?
A
Oral airway
B
Tracheostomy set
C
Pliers
D
Wire cutters
Question 18 Explanation:
The client with a fractured mandible should keep a pair of wire cutters with him at all times to release the device in case of choking or aspiration. Oral airway is incorrect because the wires would prevent insertion of an oral airway. Pliers is incorrect because it would be of no use in releasing the wires. Tracheostomy set is incorrect because it would be used only as a last resort in case of airway obstruction.
Question 19
A client with schizophrenia is receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 400mg twice a day. An adverse side effect of the medication is:
A
Elevated blood pressure
B
Weight gain
C
Elevated temperature
D
Photosensitivity
Question 19 Explanation:
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse reaction that is characterized by extreme elevations in temperature. Photosensitivity and weight gain are incorrect because they are expected side effects. Elevations in blood pressure are associated with reactions between foods containing tyramine and MAOI.
Question 20
The nurse is teaching a group of parents about gross motor development of the toddler. Which behavior is an example of the normal gross motor skill of a toddler?
A
She can copy a horizontal line.
B
She can build a tower of eight blocks.
C
She can broad-jump.
D
She can pull a toy behind her.
Question 20 Explanation:
According to the Denver Developmental Screening Test, the child can pull a toy behind her by age 2 years. Other answer choices are not accomplished until ages 4–5 years; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 21
An 18-month-old is scheduled for a cleft palate repair. The usual type of restraints for the child with a cleft palate repair are:
A
Full arm restraints
B
Mummy restraints
C
Elbow restraints
D
Wrist restraints
Question 21 Explanation:
The least restrictive restraint for the infant with cleft lip and cleft palate repair is elbow restraints. Other answer choices are more restrictive and unnecessary; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 22
The client scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy tells the nurse, "I’m so afraid. What will happen to me during the treatment?" Which of the following statements is most therapeutic for the nurse to make?
A
"You will be given medicine to relax you during the treatment."
B
"The treatment will produce a controlled grand mal seizure."
C
"The treatment might produce nausea and headache."
D
"You can expect to be sleepy and confused for a time after the treatment."
Question 22 Explanation:
The client will receive medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and produces mild sedation. "The treatment will produce a controlled grand mal seizure." and "You can expect to be sleepy and confused for a time after the treatment." statements are incorrect because it increase the client’s anxiety level. Nausea and headache are not associated with ECT.
Question 23
A client hospitalized with severe depression and suicidal ideation refuses to talk with the nurse. The nurse recognizes that the suicidal client has difficulty:
A
Discussing remorse and guilt for actions
B
Displaying dependence on others
C
Expressing feelings of low self-worth
D
Expressing anger toward others
Question 23 Explanation:
The suicidal client has difficulty expressing anger toward others. The depressed suicidal client frequently expresses feelings of low self-worth, feelings of remorse and guilt, and a dependence on others.
Question 24
An elderly client who experiences nighttime confusion wanders from his room into the room of another client. The nurse can best help decrease the client’s confusion by:
A
Allowing the client to room with another elderly client
B
Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep
C
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts
D
Administering a bedtime sedative
Question 24 Explanation:
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts helps the client remain oriented to the environment and fosters independence. Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep and allowing the client to room with another elderly client will not decrease the client’s confusion. Administering a bedtime sedative will increase the likelihood of confusion in an elderly client.
Question 25
The best diet for the client with Meniere’s syndrome is one that is:
A
High in iodine
B
High in fiber
C
Low in sodium
D
Low in fiber
Question 25 Explanation:
A low-sodium diet is best for the client with Meniere’s syndrome. Other answer choices do not relate to the care of the client with Meniere’s syndrome; therefore, they are incorrect.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
Get Results
There are 25 questions to complete.
←
List
→
Return
Shaded items are complete.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
End
Return
You have completed
questions
question
Your score is
Correct
Wrong
Partial-Credit
You have not finished your quiz. If you leave this page, your progress will be lost.
Correct Answer
You Selected
Not Attempted
Final Score on Quiz
Attempted Questions Correct
Attempted Questions Wrong
Questions Not Attempted
Total Questions on Quiz
Question Details
Results
Date
Score
Hint
Time allowed
minutes
seconds
Time used
Answer Choice(s) Selected
Question Text
All done
Need more practice!
Keep trying!
Not bad!
Good work!
Perfect!
Text Mode
Text Mode – Text version of the exam
1. A client hospitalized with severe depression and suicidal ideation refuses to talk with the nurse. The nurse recognizes that the suicidal client has difficulty:
Expressing feelings of low self-worth
Discussing remorse and guilt for actions
Displaying dependence on others
Expressing anger toward others
2. A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide is instructed to increase her dietary intake of potassium. The best snack for the client requiring increased potassium is:
Pear
Apple
Orange
Banana
3. The nurse is caring for a client following removal of the thyroid. Immediately post-op, the nurse should:
Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with the head and neck supported by pillows
Encourage the client to turn her head side to side, to promote drainage of oral secretions
Maintain the client in a supine position with sandbags placed on either side of the head and neck
Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply every 2 hours, with the neck in a flexed position
4. A client hospitalized with chronic dyspepsia is diagnosed with gastric cancer. Which of the following is associated with an increased incidence of gastric cancer?
Dairy products
Carbonated beverages
Refined sugars
Luncheon meats
5. A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client’s record, the nurse could expect to find:
A history of consistent employment
A below-average intelligence
A history of cruelty to animals
An expression of remorse for his actions
6. The licensed vocational nurse may not assume the primary care for a client:
In the fourth stage of labor
Two days post-appendectomy
With a venous access device
With bipolar disorder
7. The physician has ordered dressings with Sulfamylon cream for a client with full-thickness burns of the hands and arms. Before dressing changes, the nurse should give priority to:
Administering pain medication
Checking the adequacy of urinary output
Requesting a daily complete blood count
Obtaining a blood glucose by finger stick
8. The nurse is teaching a group of parents about gross motor development of the toddler. Which behavior is an example of the normal gross motor skill of a toddler?
She can pull a toy behind her.
She can copy a horizontal line.
She can build a tower of eight blocks.
She can broad-jump.
9. A client hospitalized with a fractured mandible is to be discharged. Which piece of equipment should be kept on the client with a fractured mandible?
Wire cutters
Oral airway
Pliers
Tracheostomy set
10. The nurse is to administer digoxin elixir to a 6-month-old with a congenital heart defect. The nurse auscultates an apical pulse rate of The nurse should:
Record the heart rate and call the physician
Record the heart rate and administer the medication
Administer the medication and recheck the heart rate in 15 minutes
Hold the medication and recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
11. A mother of a 3-year-old hospitalized with lead poisoning asks the nurse to explain the treatment for her daughter. The nurse’s explanation is based on the knowledge that lead poisoning is treated with:
Gastric lavage
Chelating agents
Antiemetics
Activated charcoal
12. An 18-month-old is scheduled for a cleft palate repair. The usual type of restraints for the child with a cleft palate repair are:
Elbow restraints
Full arm restraints
Wrist restraints
Mummy restraints
13. A client with glaucoma has been prescribed Timoptic (timolol) eyedrops. Timoptic should be used with caution in the client with a history of:
Diabetes
Gastric ulcers
Emphysema
Pancreatitis
14. An elderly client who experiences nighttime confusion wanders from his room into the room of another client. The nurse can best help decrease the client’s confusion by:
Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep
Allowing the client to room with another elderly client
Administering a bedtime sedative
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts
15. Which of the following is a common complaint of the client with end-stage renal failure?
Weight loss
Itching
Ringing in the ears
Bruising
16. Which of the following medication orders needs further clarification?
Darvocet 65mg PO q 4–6 hrs. PRN
Nembutal 100mg PO at bedtime
Coumadin 10mg PO
Estrace 2mg PO q day
17. The best diet for the client with Meniere’s syndrome is one that is:
High in fiber
Low in sodium
High in iodine
Low in fiber
18. Which of the following findings is associated with right-sided heart failure?
Shortness of breath
Nocturnal polyuria
Daytime oliguria
Crackles in the lungs
19. An 8-year-old admitted with an upper-respiratory infection has an order for O2 saturation via pulse oximeter. To ensure an accurate reading, the nurse should:
Place the probe on the child’s abdomen
Recalibrate the oximeter at the beginning of each shift
Apply the probe and wait 15 minutes before obtaining a reading
Place the probe on the child’s finger
20. An infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is discharged with a prescription for lanoxin elixir. The nurse should instruct the mother to:
Administer the medication using a nipple
Administer the medication using the calibrated dropper in the bottle
Administer the medication using a plastic baby spoon
Administer the medication in a baby bottle with 1oz. of water
21. The client scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy tells the nurse, “I’m so afraid. What will happen to me during the treatment?” Which of the following statements is most therapeutic for the nurse to make?
“You will be given medicine to relax you during the treatment.”
“The treatment will produce a controlled grand mal seizure.”
“The treatment might produce nausea and headache.”
“You can expect to be sleepy and confused for a time after the treatment.”
22. Which of the following skin lesions is associated with Lyme’s disease?
Bull’s eye rash
Papular crusts
Bullae
Plaques
23. Which of the following snacks would be suitable for the child with gluten-induced enteropathy?
Soft oatmeal cookie
Buttered popcorn
Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
Cheese pizza
24. A client with schizophrenia is receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 400mg twice a day. An adverse side effect of the medication is:
Photosensitivity
Elevated temperature
Weight gain
Elevated blood pressure
25. Which information should be given to the client taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?
Taking the medication with meals will increase its effectiveness.
The medication can cause sleep disturbances.
More frequent dental appointments will be needed for special gum care.
The medication decreases the effects of oral contraceptives.
Answers and Rationales
Answer D is correct. The suicidal client has difficulty expressing anger toward others. The depressed suicidal client frequently expresses feelings of low self-worth, feelings of remorse and guilt, and a dependence on others; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they contain lower amounts of potassium. (Note that the banana contains 450mg K+, the orange contains 235mg K+, the pear contains 208mg K+, and the apple contains 165mg K+.)
Answer A is correct. Following a thyroidectomy, the client should be placed in semi-Fowler’s position to decrease swelling that would place pressure on the airway. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they would increase the chances of post-operative complications that include bleeding, swelling, and airway obstruction.
Answer D is correct. Luncheon meats contain preservatives such as nitrites that have been linked to gastric cancer. Answers A, B, and C have not been found to increase the risk of gastric cancer; therefore, they are incorrect.
Answer C is correct. A history of cruelty to people and animals, truancy, setting fires, and lack of guilt or remorse are associated with a diagnosis of conduct disorder in children, which becomes a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder in adults. Answer A is incorrect because the client with antisocial personality disorder does not hold consistent employment. Answer B is incorrect because the IQ is usually higher than average. Answer D is incorrect because of a lack of guilt or remorse for wrong-doing.
Answer C is correct. The licensed vocational nurse may not assume primary care of the client with a central venous access device. The licensed vocational nurse may care for the client in labor, the client post-operative client, and the client with bipolar disorder; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
Answer A is correct. Sulfamylon produces a painful sensation when applied to the burn wound; therefore, the client should receive pain medicationbefore dressing changes. Answers B, C, and D do not pertain to dressing changes for the client with burns, so they are incorrect.
Answer A is correct. According to the Denver Developmental Screening Test, the child can pull a toy behind her by age 2 years. Answers B, C, and D are not accomplished until ages 4–5 years; therefore, they are incorrect.
Answer A is correct. The client with a fractured mandible should keep a pair of wire cutters with him at all times to release the device in case of choking or aspiration. Answer B is incorrect because the wires would prevent insertion of an oral airway. Answer C is incorrect because it would be of no use in releasing the wires. Answer D is incorrect because it would be used only as a last resort in case of airway obstruction.
Answer B is correct. The infant’s apical heart rate is within the accepted range for administering the medication. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the apical heart rate is suitable for giving the medication.
Answer B is correct. Chelating agents are used to treat the client with poisonings from heavy metals such as lead and iron. Answers A and D are used to remove noncorrosive poisons; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C prevents vomiting; therefore, it is an incorrect response.
Answer A is correct. The least restrictive restraint for the infant with cleft lip and cleft palate repair is elbow restraints. Answers B, C, and D are more restrictive and unnecessary; therefore, they are incorrect.
Answer C is correct. Beta blockers such as timolol (Timoptic) can cause bronchospasms in the client with chronic obstructive lung disease. Timoptic is not contraindicated for use in clients with diabetes, gastric ulcers, or pancreatitis; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
Answer D is correct. Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts helps the client remain oriented to the environment and fosters independence. Answers A and B will not decrease the client’s confusion. Answer C will increase the likelihood of confusion in an elderly client.
Answer B is correct. Pruritis or itching is caused by the presence of uric acid crystals on the skin, which is common in the client with end-stage renal failure. Answers A, C, and D are not associated with end-stage renal failure.
Answer C is correct. There is no specified time or frequency for the ordered medication. Answers A, B, and D contain specified time and frequency.
Answer B is correct. A low-sodium diet is best for the client with Meniere’s syndrome. Answers A, C, and D do not relate to the care of the client with Meniere’s syndrome; therefore, they are incorrect.
Answer B is correct. Increased voiding at night is a symptom of right-sided heart failure. Answers A and D are incorrect because they are symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Answer C does not relate to the client’s diagnosis; therefore, it is incorrect.
Answer D is correct. The pulse oximeter should be placed on the child’s finger or earlobe because blood flow to these areas is most accessible for measuring oxygen concentration. Answer A is incorrect because the probe cannot be secured to the abdomen. Answer B is incorrect because it should be recalibrated before application. Answer C is incorrect because a reading is obtained within seconds, not minutes.
Answer B is correct. The medication should be administered using the calibrated dropper that comes with the medication. Answers A and C are incorrect because part or all of the medication could be lost during administration. Answer D is incorrect because part or all of the medication will be lost if the child does not finish the bottle.
Answer A is correct. The client will receive medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and produces mild sedation. Answers B and D are incorrect because such statements increase the client’s anxiety level. Nausea and headache are not associated with ECT; therefore, answer C is incorrect.
Answer A is correct. Lyme’s disease produces a characteristic annular or circular rash sometimes described as a “bull’s eye” rash. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not symptoms associated with Lyme’s disease.
Answer B is correct. The client with gluten-induced enteropathy experiences symptoms after ingesting foods containing wheat, oats, barley, or rye. Corn or millet are substituted in the diet. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain foods that worsen the client’s condition.
Answer B is correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse reaction that is characterized by extreme elevations in temperature. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are expected side effects. Elevations in blood pressure are associated with reactions between foods containing tyramine and MAOI; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
Answer C is correct. Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of phenytoin. The client will need more frequent dental visits. Answers A, B, and D do not apply to the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.