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NCLEX Practice Exam for Foundation of Nursing (PM)
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Question 1
To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the nurse should:
A
Do nothing after adding the solution to the vial
B
Roll the vial gently between the palms
C
Invert the vial and let it stand for 1 minute
D
Shake the vial vigorously
Question 1 Explanation:
Gently rolling a sealed vial between the palms produces sufficient heat to enhance dissolution of a powdered medication. Shaking the vial vigorously can break down the medication and alter its pharmacologic action. Inverting the vial or leaving it alone does not ensure thorough homogenization of the powder and the solvent.
Question 2
After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness, burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematons. This usually indicates:
A
Infiltration
B
Phlebitis
C
Infection
D
Bleeding
Question 2 Explanation:
Tenderness, warmth, swelling, and, in some instances, a burning sensation are signs and symptoms of phlebitis. Infection is less likely because no drainage or fever is present. Infiltration would result in swelling and pallor, not erythema, near the insertion site. The patient has no evidence of bleeding.
Question 3
The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can help induce sleep is:
A
Temazepam
B
Methotrimeprazine
C
Tryptophan
D
Flurazepam
Question 3 Explanation:
Tryptophan is a natural sedative; flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril), and methotrimeprazine (Levoprome) are hypnotic sedatives.
Question 4
Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include all of the following except:
A
Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
B
Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap in the afternoon
C
Provide quiet music and interesting reading material
D
Turn on the television in the patient’s room
Question 4 Explanation:
Napping in the afternoon is not conductive to nighttime sleeping. Quiet music, watching television, reading, and massage usually will relax the patient, helping him to fall asleep.
Question 5
Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
A
Stage II non-REM
B
Delta stage
C
Stage I non-REM
D
Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
Question 5 Explanation:
Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep (the patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly irregular heart and respiratory rates. Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without dreaming. Delta stage, or slow-wave sleep, occurs during non-REM Stages III and IV and is often equated with quiet sleep.
Question 6
To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
A
Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
B
Organism’s Gram-staining characteristics
C
Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
D
Organism’s mode of transmission
Question 6 Explanation:
Before instituting isolation precaution, the nurse must first determine the organism’s mode of transmission. For example, an organism transmitted through nasal secretions requires that the patient be kept in respiratory isolation, which involves keeping the patient in a private room with the door closed and wearing a mask, a grown, and gloves when coming in direct contact with the patient. The organism’s Gram-straining characteristics reveal whether the organism is gram-negative or gram-positive, an important criterion in the physician’s choice for drug therapy and the nurse’s development of an effective plan of care. The nurse also needs to know whether the organism is susceptible to antibiotics, but this could take several days to determine; if she waits for the results before instituting isolation precautions, the organism could be transmitted in the meantime. The patient’s susceptibility to the organism has already been established. The nurse would not be instituting isolation precautions for a noninfected patient.
Question 7
Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
A
Fixed, dilated pupils
B
Increased muscle tone
C
A weak, slow pulse
D
Slow, shallow respirations
Question 7 Explanation:
Fixed, dilated pupils are sign of imminent death. Pulse becomes weak but rapid, muscles become weak and atonic, and periods of apnea occur during respiration.
Question 8
When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes from the distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
A
Avoids undue strain on the nurse
B
Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
C
Causes vasoconstriction and increases circulation
D
Increases venous blood return
Question 8 Explanation:
Washing from distal to proximal areas stimulates venous blood flow, thereby preventing venous stasis. It improves circulation but does not result in vasoconstriction. The nurse can assess the patient’s condition throughout the bath, regardless of washing technique, and should feel no strain while bathing the patient.
Question 9
Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
A
Taking psychology courses related to gerontology
B
Reading books and other literature on the subject of thanatology
C
eviewing varying cultural beliefs and practices related to death
D
Reflecting on the significance of death
Question 9 Explanation:
According to thanatologists, reflecting on the significance of death helps to reduce the fear of death and enables the health care provider to better understand the terminally ill patient’s feelings. It also helps to overcome the belief that medical and nursing measures have failed, when a patient cannot be cured.
Question 10
An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:
A
More articles can be sterilized at a time
B
Steam causes less damage to the materials
C
Pressurized steam penetrates the supplies better
D
A lower temperature can be obtained
Question 10 Explanation:
An autoclave, an apparatus that sterilizes equipment by means of high-temperature pressured steam, is used because it can destroy all forms of microorganisms, including spores.
Question 11
Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?
A
Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag
B
Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container
C
Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container
D
Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum
Question 11 Explanation:
Placing the specimen in a sterile container ensures that it will not become contaminated. The other answers are incorrect because they do not mention sterility and because antiseptic mouthwash could destroy the organism to be cultured (before sputum collection, the patient may use only tap water for nursing the mouth).
Question 12
The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of normal saline solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml?
A
25 gtt/minute
B
60 gtt/minute
C
37 gtt/minute
D
50 gtt/minute
Question 13
How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular and NPH insulin?
A
Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same syringe
B
Check with the physician
C
Use two separate syringe
D
Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe
Question 13 Explanation:
Drugs that are compatible may be mixed together in one syringe. In the case of insulin, the shorter-acting, clear insulin (regular) should be drawn up before the longer-acting, cloudy insulin (NPH) to ensure accurate measurements.
Question 14
Which of the following is the nurse’s legal responsibility when applying restraints?
A
Document the patient’s behavior
B
Obtain a written order from the physician except in an emergency, when the patient must be protected from injury to himself or others
C
Document the type of restraint used
D
All of the above
Question 14 Explanation:
When applying restraints, the nurse must document the type of behavior that prompted her to use them, document the type of restraints used, and obtain a physician’s written order for the restraints.
Question 15
A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100 units = 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A
2 ml
B
0.75 ml
C
1 ml
D
0.5 ml
Question 16
Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
A
Discourage a patient from attempting to ambulate alone when he requires assistance for his safety
B
Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a chair
C
Prevent a patient from becoming confused or disoriented
D
Prevent a confused patient from removing tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and urinary catheters
Question 16 Explanation:
By restricting a patient’s movements, restraints may increase stress and lead to confusion, rather than prevent it. The other choices are valid reasons for using restraints.
Question 17
A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits. What should the nurse do first?
A
Explain to the patient that she can do nothing to help him
B
Remedicate the patient
C
Observe the emesis
D
Call the physician
Question 17 Explanation:
After a patient has vomited, the nurse must inspect the emesis to document color, consistency, and amount. In this situation, the patient recently ingested medication, so the nurse needs to check for remnants of the medication to help determine whether the patient retained enough of it to be effective. The nurse must then notify the physician, who will decide whether to repeat the dose or prescribe an antiemetic.
Question 18
A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should refers to guidelines published by the:
A
American Nurses Association (ANA)
B
Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
C
National League for Nursing (NLN)
D
American Medical Association (AMA)
Question 18 Explanation:
The Center of Disease Control (CDC) publishes and frequently updates guidelines on caring for patients who require isolation. The National League of Nursing’s (NLN’s) major function is accrediting nursing education programs in the United States. The American Medical Association (AMA) is a national organization of physicians. The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) is a national organization of registered nurses.
Question 19
Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:
A
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance
C
Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance
D
Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance
Question 19 Explanation:
Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The patient may move back and forth through the different stages as he and his family members react to the process of dying, but he usually goes through all of these stages to reach acceptance.
Question 20
A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel uncomfortable initially when supervising her former peers. She can best decrease this discomfort by:
A
Making changes after evaluating the situation and having discussions with the staff.
B
Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance
C
Writing down all assignments
D
Evaluating the clinical performance of each staff nurse in a private conference
Question 20 Explanation:
A new assistant nurse manger should not make changes until she has had a chance to evaluate staff members, patients, and physicians. Changes must be planned thoroughly and should be based on a need to improve conditions, not just for the sake of change. Written assignments allow all staff members to know their own and others responsibilities and serve as a checklist for the manager, enabling her to gauge whether the unit is being run effectively and whether patients are receiving appropriate care. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance should occur only after the nurse has made a thorough evaluation. Evaluations are usually done on a yearly basis or as needed.
Question 21
The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:
A
Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take necessary measures to prevent infection
B
Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician
C
Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear
D
Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas
Question 21 Explanation:
Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to infection. To prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid intake, use nonirritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the patient’s skin with lotion. Bathing may be limited but need not be avoided entirely. The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for treatment, but home-laundered items usually are not necessary.
Question 22
A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the anger stage except:
A
Resentment
B
Envy
C
Numbness
D
Rage
Question 22 Explanation:
Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a great sense of loss. The anger stage includes such feelings as rage, envy, resentment, and the patient’s questioning “Why me?”
Question 23
The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated gloves is to:
A
Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them
B
Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when removing them
C
Wash the gloves before removing them
D
Remove the gloves and then turn them inside out
Question 23 Explanation:
Turning the gloves inside out while removing them keeps all contaminants inside the gloves. They should than be placed in a plastic bag with soiled dressings and discarded in a soiled utility room garbage pail (double bagged). The other choices can spread pathogens within the environment.
Question 24
The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH insulin for self-injection. The patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this situation is to:
A
Clean the injection site in a circular manner with and alcohol sponge
B
Assess the injection site
C
Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed insulin dose
D
Select the appropriate injection site
Question 24 Explanation:
When the nurse teaches the patient to prepare an insulin injection, the patient’s first priority is to validate the dose accuracy. The next steps are to select the site, assess the site, and clean the site with alcohol before injecting the insulin.
Question 25
A patient is characterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine if:
A
He has a urinary tract infection
B
His 24-hour output is adequate
C
Trauma has occurred
D
Residual urine remains in the bladder after voiding
Question 25 Explanation:
A 24-hour urine output of less than 500 ml in an adult is considered inadequate and may indicate kidney failure. This must be corrected while the patient is in the acute state so that appropriate fluids, electrolytes, and medications can be administered and excreted. Indwelling catheterization is not needed to diagnose trauma, urinary tract infection, or residual urine.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Foundation of Nursing (EM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 25 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX Practice Exam for Foundation of Nursing (EM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
A
Organism’s mode of transmission
B
Organism’s Gram-staining characteristics
C
Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
D
Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
Question 1 Explanation:
Before instituting isolation precaution, the nurse must first determine the organism’s mode of transmission. For example, an organism transmitted through nasal secretions requires that the patient be kept in respiratory isolation, which involves keeping the patient in a private room with the door closed and wearing a mask, a grown, and gloves when coming in direct contact with the patient. The organism’s Gram-straining characteristics reveal whether the organism is gram-negative or gram-positive, an important criterion in the physician’s choice for drug therapy and the nurse’s development of an effective plan of care. The nurse also needs to know whether the organism is susceptible to antibiotics, but this could take several days to determine; if she waits for the results before instituting isolation precautions, the organism could be transmitted in the meantime. The patient’s susceptibility to the organism has already been established. The nurse would not be instituting isolation precautions for a noninfected patient.
Question 2
Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?
A
Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container
B
Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum
C
Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container
D
Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag
Question 2 Explanation:
Placing the specimen in a sterile container ensures that it will not become contaminated. The other answers are incorrect because they do not mention sterility and because antiseptic mouthwash could destroy the organism to be cultured (before sputum collection, the patient may use only tap water for nursing the mouth).
Question 3
Which of the following is the nurse’s legal responsibility when applying restraints?
A
Document the type of restraint used
B
Obtain a written order from the physician except in an emergency, when the patient must be protected from injury to himself or others
C
Document the patient’s behavior
D
All of the above
Question 3 Explanation:
When applying restraints, the nurse must document the type of behavior that prompted her to use them, document the type of restraints used, and obtain a physician’s written order for the restraints.
Question 4
The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:
A
Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician
B
Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear
C
Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas
D
Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take necessary measures to prevent infection
Question 4 Explanation:
Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to infection. To prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid intake, use nonirritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the patient’s skin with lotion. Bathing may be limited but need not be avoided entirely. The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for treatment, but home-laundered items usually are not necessary.
Question 5
A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits. What should the nurse do first?
A
Observe the emesis
B
Explain to the patient that she can do nothing to help him
C
Remedicate the patient
D
Call the physician
Question 5 Explanation:
After a patient has vomited, the nurse must inspect the emesis to document color, consistency, and amount. In this situation, the patient recently ingested medication, so the nurse needs to check for remnants of the medication to help determine whether the patient retained enough of it to be effective. The nurse must then notify the physician, who will decide whether to repeat the dose or prescribe an antiemetic.
Question 6
The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of normal saline solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml?
A
37 gtt/minute
B
25 gtt/minute
C
60 gtt/minute
D
50 gtt/minute
Question 7
An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:
A
A lower temperature can be obtained
B
More articles can be sterilized at a time
C
Pressurized steam penetrates the supplies better
D
Steam causes less damage to the materials
Question 7 Explanation:
An autoclave, an apparatus that sterilizes equipment by means of high-temperature pressured steam, is used because it can destroy all forms of microorganisms, including spores.
Question 8
When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes from the distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
A
Increases venous blood return
B
Causes vasoconstriction and increases circulation
C
Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
D
Avoids undue strain on the nurse
Question 8 Explanation:
Washing from distal to proximal areas stimulates venous blood flow, thereby preventing venous stasis. It improves circulation but does not result in vasoconstriction. The nurse can assess the patient’s condition throughout the bath, regardless of washing technique, and should feel no strain while bathing the patient.
Question 9
After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness, burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematons. This usually indicates:
A
Infiltration
B
Phlebitis
C
Infection
D
Bleeding
Question 9 Explanation:
Tenderness, warmth, swelling, and, in some instances, a burning sensation are signs and symptoms of phlebitis. Infection is less likely because no drainage or fever is present. Infiltration would result in swelling and pallor, not erythema, near the insertion site. The patient has no evidence of bleeding.
Question 10
A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the anger stage except:
A
Rage
B
Numbness
C
Envy
D
Resentment
Question 10 Explanation:
Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a great sense of loss. The anger stage includes such feelings as rage, envy, resentment, and the patient’s questioning “Why me?”
Question 11
Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:
A
Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance
B
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance
D
Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance
Question 11 Explanation:
Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The patient may move back and forth through the different stages as he and his family members react to the process of dying, but he usually goes through all of these stages to reach acceptance.
Question 12
To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the nurse should:
A
Invert the vial and let it stand for 1 minute
B
Roll the vial gently between the palms
C
Shake the vial vigorously
D
Do nothing after adding the solution to the vial
Question 12 Explanation:
Gently rolling a sealed vial between the palms produces sufficient heat to enhance dissolution of a powdered medication. Shaking the vial vigorously can break down the medication and alter its pharmacologic action. Inverting the vial or leaving it alone does not ensure thorough homogenization of the powder and the solvent.
Question 13
A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should refers to guidelines published by the:
A
American Nurses Association (ANA)
B
National League for Nursing (NLN)
C
American Medical Association (AMA)
D
Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
Question 13 Explanation:
The Center of Disease Control (CDC) publishes and frequently updates guidelines on caring for patients who require isolation. The National League of Nursing’s (NLN’s) major function is accrediting nursing education programs in the United States. The American Medical Association (AMA) is a national organization of physicians. The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) is a national organization of registered nurses.
Question 14
A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100 units = 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A
0.75 ml
B
2 ml
C
1 ml
D
0.5 ml
Question 15
The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can help induce sleep is:
A
Tryptophan
B
Methotrimeprazine
C
Flurazepam
D
Temazepam
Question 15 Explanation:
Tryptophan is a natural sedative; flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril), and methotrimeprazine (Levoprome) are hypnotic sedatives.
Question 16
Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
A
Reflecting on the significance of death
B
eviewing varying cultural beliefs and practices related to death
C
Reading books and other literature on the subject of thanatology
D
Taking psychology courses related to gerontology
Question 16 Explanation:
According to thanatologists, reflecting on the significance of death helps to reduce the fear of death and enables the health care provider to better understand the terminally ill patient’s feelings. It also helps to overcome the belief that medical and nursing measures have failed, when a patient cannot be cured.
Question 17
Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
A
Increased muscle tone
B
Fixed, dilated pupils
C
A weak, slow pulse
D
Slow, shallow respirations
Question 17 Explanation:
Fixed, dilated pupils are sign of imminent death. Pulse becomes weak but rapid, muscles become weak and atonic, and periods of apnea occur during respiration.
Question 18
A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel uncomfortable initially when supervising her former peers. She can best decrease this discomfort by:
A
Writing down all assignments
B
Making changes after evaluating the situation and having discussions with the staff.
C
Evaluating the clinical performance of each staff nurse in a private conference
D
Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance
Question 18 Explanation:
A new assistant nurse manger should not make changes until she has had a chance to evaluate staff members, patients, and physicians. Changes must be planned thoroughly and should be based on a need to improve conditions, not just for the sake of change. Written assignments allow all staff members to know their own and others responsibilities and serve as a checklist for the manager, enabling her to gauge whether the unit is being run effectively and whether patients are receiving appropriate care. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance should occur only after the nurse has made a thorough evaluation. Evaluations are usually done on a yearly basis or as needed.
Question 19
A patient is characterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine if:
A
Residual urine remains in the bladder after voiding
B
He has a urinary tract infection
C
His 24-hour output is adequate
D
Trauma has occurred
Question 19 Explanation:
A 24-hour urine output of less than 500 ml in an adult is considered inadequate and may indicate kidney failure. This must be corrected while the patient is in the acute state so that appropriate fluids, electrolytes, and medications can be administered and excreted. Indwelling catheterization is not needed to diagnose trauma, urinary tract infection, or residual urine.
Question 20
How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular and NPH insulin?
A
Use two separate syringe
B
Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same syringe
C
Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe
D
Check with the physician
Question 20 Explanation:
Drugs that are compatible may be mixed together in one syringe. In the case of insulin, the shorter-acting, clear insulin (regular) should be drawn up before the longer-acting, cloudy insulin (NPH) to ensure accurate measurements.
Question 21
Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
A
Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a chair
B
Discourage a patient from attempting to ambulate alone when he requires assistance for his safety
C
Prevent a patient from becoming confused or disoriented
D
Prevent a confused patient from removing tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and urinary catheters
Question 21 Explanation:
By restricting a patient’s movements, restraints may increase stress and lead to confusion, rather than prevent it. The other choices are valid reasons for using restraints.
Question 22
Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include all of the following except:
A
Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
B
Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap in the afternoon
C
Provide quiet music and interesting reading material
D
Turn on the television in the patient’s room
Question 22 Explanation:
Napping in the afternoon is not conductive to nighttime sleeping. Quiet music, watching television, reading, and massage usually will relax the patient, helping him to fall asleep.
Question 23
The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH insulin for self-injection. The patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this situation is to:
A
Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed insulin dose
B
Assess the injection site
C
Clean the injection site in a circular manner with and alcohol sponge
D
Select the appropriate injection site
Question 23 Explanation:
When the nurse teaches the patient to prepare an insulin injection, the patient’s first priority is to validate the dose accuracy. The next steps are to select the site, assess the site, and clean the site with alcohol before injecting the insulin.
Question 24
Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
A
Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
B
Stage II non-REM
C
Stage I non-REM
D
Delta stage
Question 24 Explanation:
Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep (the patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly irregular heart and respiratory rates. Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without dreaming. Delta stage, or slow-wave sleep, occurs during non-REM Stages III and IV and is often equated with quiet sleep.
Question 25
The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated gloves is to:
A
Wash the gloves before removing them
B
Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when removing them
C
Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them
D
Remove the gloves and then turn them inside out
Question 25 Explanation:
Turning the gloves inside out while removing them keeps all contaminants inside the gloves. They should than be placed in a plastic bag with soiled dressings and discarded in a soiled utility room garbage pail (double bagged). The other choices can spread pathogens within the environment.
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1. The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:
Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician
Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear
Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take necessary measures to prevent infection
Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas
2. When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes from the distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
Avoids undue strain on the nurse
Increases venous blood return
Causes vasoconstriction and increases circulation
3. Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
Stage I non-REM
Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
Stage II non-REM
Delta stage
4. The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can help induce sleep is:
Flurazepam
Temazepam
Tryptophan
Methotrimeprazine
5. Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include all of the following except:
Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap in the afternoon
Turn on the television in the patient’s room
Provide quiet music and interesting reading material
Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
6. Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
Prevent a confused patient from removing tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and urinary catheters
Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a chair
Discourage a patient from attempting to ambulate alone when he requires assistance for his safety
Prevent a patient from becoming confused or disoriented
7. Which of the following is the nurse’s legal responsibility when applying restraints?
Document the patient’s behavior
Document the type of restraint used
Obtain a written order from the physician except in an emergency, when the patient must be protected from injury to himself or others
All of the above
8. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:
Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance
Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance
9. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the anger stage except:
Rage
Envy
Numbness
Resentment
10. Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
Taking psychology courses related to gerontology
Reading books and other literature on the subject of thanatology
Reflecting on the significance of death
Reviewing varying cultural beliefs and practices related to death
11. Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
A weak, slow pulse
Increased muscle tone
Fixed, dilated pupils
Slow, shallow respirations
12. A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should refers to guidelines published by the:
National League for Nursing (NLN)
Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
American Medical Association (AMA)
American Nurses Association (ANA)
13. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
Organism’s mode of transmission
Organism’s Gram-staining characteristics
Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
14. Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?
Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag
Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container
Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container
Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum
15. An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:
More articles can be sterilized at a time
Steam causes less damage to the materials
A lower temperature can be obtained
Pressurized steam penetrates the supplies better
16. The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated gloves is to:
Wash the gloves before removing them
Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when removing them
Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them
Remove the gloves and then turn them inside out
17. After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness, burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematons. This usually indicates:
Infection
Infiltration
Phlebitis
Bleeding
18. To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the nurse should:
Shake the vial vigorously
Roll the vial gently between the palms
Invert the vial and let it stand for 1 minute
Do nothing after adding the solution to the vial
19. The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH insulin for self-injection. The patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this situation is to:
Assess the injection site
Select the appropriate injection site
Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed insulin dose
Clean the injection site in a circular manner with and alcohol sponge
20. The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of normal saline solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml?
25 gtt/minute
37 gtt/minute
50 gtt/minute
60 gtt/minute
21. A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100 units = 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
0.5 ml
0.75 ml
1 ml
2 ml
22. How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular and NPH insulin?
Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe
Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same syringe
Use two separate syringe
Check with the physician
23. A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits. What should the nurse do first?
Call the physician
Remedicate the patient
Observe the emesis
Explain to the patient that she can do nothing to help him
24. A patient is characterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine if:
Trauma has occurred
His 24-hour output is adequate
He has a urinary tract infection
Residual urine remains in the bladder after voiding
25. A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel uncomfortable initially when supervising her former peers. She can best decrease this discomfort by:
Writing down all assignments
Making changes after evaluating the situation and having discussions with the staff.
Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance
Evaluating the clinical performance of each staff nurse in a private conference
Answers and Rationales
Answer – D. Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to infection. To prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid intake, use nonirritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the patient’s skin with lotion. Bathing may be limited but need not be avoided entirely. The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for treatment, but home-laundered items usually are not necessary.
Answer – C. Washing from distal to proximal areas stimulates venous blood flow, thereby preventing venous stasis. It improves circulation but does not result in vasoconstriction. The nurse can assess the patient’s condition throughout the bath, regardless of washing technique, and should feel no strain while bathing the patient.
Answer – B. Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep (the patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly irregular heart and respiratory rates. Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without dreaming. Delta stage, or slow-wave sleep, occurs during non-REM Stages III and IV and is often equated with quiet sleep.
Answer – C. Tryptophan is a natural sedative; flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril), and methotrimeprazine (Levoprome) are hypnotic sedatives.
Answer – A. Napping in the afternoon is not conductive to nighttime sleeping. Quiet music, watching television, reading, and massage usually will relax the patient, helping him to fall asleep.
Answer – D. By restricting a patient’s movements, restraints may increase stress and lead to confusion, rather than prevent it. The other choices are valid reasons for using restraints.
Answer – D. When applying restraints, the nurse must document the type of behavior that prompted her to use them, document the type of restraints used, and obtain a physician’s written order for the restraints.
Answer – C. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The patient may move back and forth through the different stages as he and his family members react to the process of dying, but he usually goes through all of these stages to reach acceptance.
Answer – C. Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a great sense of loss. The anger stage includes such feelings as rage, envy, resentment, and the patient’s questioning “Why me?”
Answer – C. According to thanatologists, reflecting on the significance of death helps to reduce the fear of death and enables the health care provider to better understand the terminally ill patient’s feelings. It also helps to overcome the belief that medical and nursing measures have failed, when a patient cannot be cured.
Answer – C. Fixed, dilated pupils are sign of imminent death. Pulse becomes weak but rapid, muscles become weak and atonic, and periods of apnea occur during respiration.
Answer – B. The Center of Disease Control (CDC) publishes and frequently updates guidelines on caring for patients who require isolation. The National League of Nursing’s (NLN’s) major function is accrediting nursing education programs in the
United States. The American Medical Association (AMA) is a national organization of physicians. The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) is a national organization of registered nurses.
Answer – A. Before instituting isolation precaution, the nurse must first determine the organism’s mode of transmission. For example, an organism transmitted through nasal secretions requires that the patient be kept in respiratory isolation, which involves keeping the patient in a private room with the door closed and wearing a mask, a grown, and gloves when coming in direct contact with the patient. The organism’s Gram-straining characteristics reveal whether the organism is gram-negative or gram-positive, an important criterion in the physician’s choice for drug therapy and the nurse’s development of an effective plan of care. The nurse also needs to know whether the organism is susceptible to antibiotics, but this could take several days to determine; if she waits for the results before instituting isolation precautions, the organism could be transmitted in the meantime. The patient’s susceptibility to the organism has already been established. The nurse would not be instituting isolation precautions for a noninfected patient.
Answer – C. Placing the specimen in a sterile container ensures that it will not become contaminated. The other answers are incorrect because they do not mention sterility and because antiseptic mouthwash could destroy the organism to be cultured (before sputum collection, the patient may use only tap water for nursing the mouth).
Answer – D. An autoclave, an apparatus that sterilizes equipment by means of high-temperature pressured steam, is used because it can destroy all forms of microorganisms, including spores.
Answer – C. Turning the gloves inside out while removing them keeps all contaminants inside the gloves. They should than be placed in a plastic bag with soiled dressings and discarded in a soiled utility room garbage pail (double bagged). The other choices can spread pathogens within the environment.
Answer – C. Tenderness, warmth, swelling, and, in some instances, a burning sensation are signs and symptoms of phlebitis. Infection is less likely because no drainage or fever is present. Infiltration would result in swelling and pallor, not erythema, near the insertion site. The patient has no evidence of bleeding.
Answer – B. Gently rolling a sealed vial between the palms produces sufficient heat to enhance dissolution of a powdered medication. Shaking the vial vigorously can break down the medication and alter its pharmacologic action. Inverting the vial or leaving it alone does not ensure thorough homogenization of the powder and the solvent.
Answer – C. When the nurse teaches the patient to prepare an insulin injection, the patient’s first priority is to validate the dose accuracy. The next steps are to select the site, assess the site, and clean the site with alcohol before injecting the insulin.
Answer – A. 25 gtt/minute
Answer – A. 0.5 ml
Answer – B. Drugs that are compatible may be mixed together in one syringe. In the case of insulin, the shorter-acting, clear insulin (regular) should be drawn up before the longer-acting, cloudy insulin (NPH) to ensure accurate measurements.
Answer – C. After a patient has vomited, the nurse must inspect the emesis to document color, consistency, and amount. In this situation, the patient recently ingested medication, so the nurse needs to check for remnants of the medication to help determine whether the patient retained enough of it to be effective. The nurse must then notify the physician, who will decide whether to repeat the dose or prescribe an antiemetic.
Answer – B. A 24-hour urine output of less than 500 ml in an adult is considered inadequate and may indicate kidney failure. This must be corrected while the patient is in the acute state so that appropriate fluids, electrolytes, and medications can be administered and excreted. Indwelling catheterization is not needed to diagnose trauma, urinary tract infection, or residual urine.
Answer – B. A new assistant nurse manger should not make changes until she has had a chance to evaluate staff members, patients, and physicians. Changes must be planned thoroughly and should be based on a need to improve conditions, not just for the sake of change. Written assignments allow all staff members to know their own and others responsibilities and serve as a checklist for the manager, enabling her to gauge whether the unit is being run effectively and whether patients are receiving appropriate care. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance should occur only after the nurse has made a thorough evaluation. Evaluations are usually done on a yearly basis or as needed.