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NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 15 (PM)
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Question 1
Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain break through for morphine drip is not working?
A
The level of drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
B
The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon
C
The client states "I just can’t get relief from my pain."
D
The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
Question 1 Explanation:
The minimal dose of 10 ml per hour which would be 40 ml given in a 4 hour period. Only 60 ml should be left at noon. The pump is not functioning when more than expected medicine is left in the container.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
A
Apply dressing using sterile technique
B
Improve the client’s nutrition status
C
Initiate limb compression therapy
D
Begin proteolytic debridement
Question 2 Explanation:
The goal of clinical management in a client with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. This only can be accomplished with proper nutrition. The other answers are correct, but without proper nutrition, the other interventions would be of little help.
Question 3
What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years?
A
Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year
B
Little change in body appearance from year to year
C
Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass
D
Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year
Question 3 Explanation:
School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height.
Question 4
Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?
A
Enema to be administered prior to the examination
B
No special orders are necessary for this examination
C
Medicate client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes prior to the examination
D
Client must be NPO before the examination
Question 4 Explanation:
No special preparation is necessary for this examination.
Question 5
When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize:
A
Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day
B
Eating 3 balanced meals a day
C
Adding complex carbohydrates
D
Avoiding very heavy meals
Question 5 Explanation:
Eating large, heavy meals can pull blood away from the heart for digestion and is dangerous for the client with coronary artery disease.
Question 6
The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
A
A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over 10 years and admitted with antibiotic induced diarrhea 24 hours ago
B
An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitus of the lower leg 48 hours ago
C
A middle aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over 7 years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago
D
An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning
Question 6 Explanation:
The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar with their care. This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home.
Question 7
A client has a Swan-Ganz catheter in place. The nurse understands that this is intended to measure:
A
Renal tubule function
B
Right heart function
C
Carotid artery function
D
Left heart function
Question 7 Explanation:
The Swan-Ganz catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery to obtain information about the left side of the heart. The pressure readings are inferred from pressure measurements obtained on the right side of the circulation. Right-sided heart function is assessed through the evaluation of the central venous pressures (CVP).
Question 8
Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
A
dizziness
B
thrombus formation
C
angina at rest
D
falling blood pressure
Question 8 Explanation:
Thrombus formation in the coronary arteries is a potential problem in the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization. A falling BP occurs along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure.
Question 9
A 3 year-old child comes to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
A
Collect a sputum specimen
B
Prepare the child for x-ray of upper airways
C
Notify the healthcare provider of the child’s status
D
Examine the child’s throat
Question 9 Explanation:
These findings suggest a medical emergency and may be due to epiglottises. Any child with an acute onset of an inflammatory response in the mouth and throat should receive immediate attention in a facility equipped to perform intubation or a tracheostomy in the event of further or complete obstruction.
Question 10
In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school age child for evaluation?
A
Polyphagia
B
Weight loss
C
Dehydration
D
Bed wetting
Question 10 Explanation:
In children, fatigue and bed wetting are the chief complaints that prompt parents to take their child for evaluation. Bed wetting in a school age child is readily detected by the parents.
Question 11
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right CVA. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
A
Loss of bladder control
B
Decrease in level of consciousness
C
Altered sensation to stimuli
D
Emotional ability
Question 11 Explanation:
A further decrease in the level of consciousness would be indicative of a further progression of the CVA.
Question 12
During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
A
Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
B
Increase fluids that are high in protein
C
Restrict fluids
D
Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
Question 12 Explanation:
Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 15 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent usually accompanied by dizziness indicates volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.
Question 13
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post mature fetus is at risk due to:
A
Low blood sugar levels
B
Excessive fetal weight
C
Depletion of subcutaneous fat
D
Progressive placental insufficiency
Question 13 Explanation:
The placenta functions less efficiently as pregnancy continues beyond 42 weeks. Immediate and long term effects may be related to hypoxia.
Question 14
Which of these statements best describes the characteristic of an effective reward-feedback system?
A
Positive statements are to precede a negative statement
B
Staff are given feedback in equal amounts over time
C
Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
D
Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Question 14 Explanation:
Feedback is most useful when given immediately. Positive behavior is strengthened through immediate feedback, and it is easier to modify problem behaviors if the standards are clearly understood.
Question 15
A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropisol) 0.4 mg, and promethizine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?
A
Raise the side rails on the bed
B
Instruct the client to remain in bedv
C
Place the call bell within reach
D
Have the client empty bladder
Question 15 Explanation:
The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication.
Question 16
A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
A
Edema of the ankles
B
Gastric irritability
C
Weight gain of 5 pounds
D
Decreased appetite
Question 16 Explanation:
Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias.
Question 17
The nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip replacement 4 days ago. Which assessment requires the nurse’s immediate attention?
A
"I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours."
B
I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
C
"I just can’t ‘catch my breath’ over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger."
D
"It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today."
Question 17 Explanation:
The nurse would be concerned about all of these comments. However the most life threatening is answer choice "I just can’t ‘catch my breath’ over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.". Clients who have had hip or knee surgery are at greatest risk for development of post operative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are classic findings of pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms do not require immediate attention. Answer choice "I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours." may indicate a urinary tract infection. answer choice "It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today." requires further investigation and is not life threatening.
Question 18
A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
A
Chlamydia
B
Staphylococcus
C
Trichomoniasis
D
Streptococcus
Question 18 Explanation:
Chlamydial infections are one of the most frequent causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 19
A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?
A
Bulky greasy stools
B
Meconium ileus
C
Positive sweat test
D
Moist, productive cough
Question 19 Explanation:
Moist, productive cough is a later sign. Noisy respirations and a dry non-productive cough are commonly the first of the respiratory signs to appear in a newly diagnosed client with cystic fibrosis (CF). The other options are the earliest findings. CF is an inherited (genetic) condition affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat, saliva and digestive juices. Normally, these secretions are thin and slippery, but in CF, a defective gene causes the secretions to become thick and sticky. Instead of acting as a lubricant, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts and passageways, especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is the most dangerous consequence of CF.
Question 20
The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs 2 hours ago. The nurse should:
A
Instruct the client’s wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse
B
Place a call to the client’s health care provider for instructions
C
Reassure the client’s wife that the symptoms are transient
D
Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
Question 20 Explanation:
This client requires immediate evaluation. A delay in treatment could result in further deterioration and harm. Home care nurses must prioritize interventions based on assessment findings that are in the client’s best interest.
Question 21
An RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
A
A young adult who says "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking 2 days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"
B
An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit" 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room
C
An adolescent who has been on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10
D
A middle-aged client who says "I took too many diet pills" and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."
Question 21 Explanation:
Nurses who are floated to other units should be assigned to a client who has minimal anticipated immediate complications of their problem. The client on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10 exhibits opoid toxicity with the pinpoint pupils and has the least risk of complications to occur in the near future.
Question 22
A triage nurse has these 4 clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?
A
A 2 month old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and has bulging fontanels with crying
B
A teenager who got a singed beard while camping
C
An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown colored stools
D
A middle aged client with intermittent pain behind the right scapula
Question 22 Explanation:
A client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory distress, Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or fire in close range that could have caused damage to the interior of the lung. Note that the interior lining of the lung has no nerve fibers so the client will not be aware of swelling.
Question 23
A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is
A
Manage pain
B
Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
C
Control nausea
D
Prevent urinary tract infection
Question 23 Explanation:
The immediate goal of therapy is to alleviate the client’s pain.
Question 24
A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg. Daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg. B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
A
Urine output 50 ml/hour
B
Blood pressure 94/60
C
Respiratory rate 16
D
Heart rate 76
Question 24 Explanation:
Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within normal range (HR 60-100; systolic B/P over 100) in order to safely administer both medications.
Question 25
A client with multiple sclerosis plans to begin an exercise program. In addition to discussing the benefits of regular exercise, the nurse should caution the client to avoid activities which:
A
Increase the heart rate
B
Lead to dehydration
C
May be competitive
D
Are considered aerobic
Question 25 Explanation:
The client must take in adequate fluids before and during exercise periods.
Question 26
The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is
A
Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order
B
Ensure that feeding solution is at room temperature
C
Aspirate abdominal contents to determine the amount of last feeding remaining in stomach
D
Verify correct placement of the tube
Question 26 Explanation:
Proper placement of the tube prevents aspiration.
Question 27
While assessing a 1 month-old infant, which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A
Irregular breathing rate
B
Inspiratory grunt
C
Abdominal respirations
D
Increased heart rate with crying
Question 27 Explanation:
Inspiratory grunting is abnormal and may be a sign of respiratory distress in this infant.
Question 28
While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child’s developmental needs?
A
"I understand the need to use those new skills."
B
"I will set limits on exploring the house."
C
"I want to protect my child from any falls."
D
"I intend to keep control over our child."
Question 28 Explanation:
Erikson describes the stage of the toddler as being the time when there is normally an increase in autonomy. The child needs to use motor skills to explore the environment.
Question 29
The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the priority goal would be to
A
Respect life
B
Restore yin and yang
C
Achieve harmony
D
Maintain a balance of energy
Question 29 Explanation:
For followers of Chinese medicine, health is maintained through balance between the forces of yin and yang.
Question 30
A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3 year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
A
Gravida 2 para 1
B
Gravida 3 para 2
C
Gravida 3 para 1
D
Gravida 4 para 2
Question 30 Explanation:
Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of pregnancies that reach viability (not the number of fetuses). Thus, for this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1 viable birth (twins).
Question 31
A nurse prepares to care for a 4 year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
A
The leg bones
B
The kidneys
C
The cerebellum
D
All striated muscles
Question 31 Explanation:
Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common children”s soft tissue sarcoma. It originates in striated (skeletal) muscles and can be found anywhere in the body. The clue is in the middle of the word and is “myo” which typically means muscle.
Question 32
During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which statement by a family member?
A
At least 2 full meals a day is eaten.
B
We go to a group discussion every week at our community center.
C
The medication is not a problem to have it taken 3 times a day.
D
We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24 hour alarms on the doors.
Question 32 Explanation:
Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority of home care. Note all options are correct statements. However, safety is most important to reinforce.
Question 33
A child who ingested 15 maximum strength acetaminophen tablets 45 minutes ago is seen in the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
A
Activated charcoal per pharmacy
B
Acetylcysteine (mucomyst) for age per pharmacy
C
Gastric lavage PRN
D
Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep vein open
Question 33 Explanation:
Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for this drug overdose. This is best done by gastric lavage. The next drug to give would be activated charcoal, then mucomyst and lastly the IV fluids.
Question 34
Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?
A
40 year-old Caucasian nurse
B
45 year-old African American attorney
C
55 year-old Hisapanic teacher
D
60 year-old Asian American shop owner
Question 34 Explanation:
The incidence of hypertension is greater among African Americans than other groups in the US. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising.
Question 35
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq KCL in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
A
Narrowed QRS complex
B
Prominent "U" waves
C
Shortened "PR" interval
D
Tall peaked T waves
Question 35 Explanation:
A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The health care provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication.
Question 36
The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse’s response?
A
Exercise of joints
B
Electrical energy fields
C
Spinal column manipulation
D
Mind-body balance
Question 36 Explanation:
The theory underlying chiropractic is that interference with transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs produces diseases. Such interference is caused by misalignment of the vertebrae. Manipulation reduces the subluxation.
Question 37
At a community health fair the blood pressure of a 62 year-old client is 160/96. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to
A
go get a blood pressure check within the next 48 to 72 hours
B
visit the health care provider within 1 week for a BP check
C
check blood pressure again in 2 months
D
see the health care provider immediately
Question 37 Explanation:
The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked in a few days. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. However immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long.
Question 38
A client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:
A
Should be taken in the morning
B
Will decrease the client’s heart rate
C
Must be stored in a dark container
D
May decrease the client’s energy level
Question 38 Explanation:
Thyroid supplement should be taken in the morning to minimize the side effects of insomnia
Question 39
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client 7 days post myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait 6 weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
A
"Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."
B
"You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."
C
"If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."
D
"When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe.”
Question 39 Explanation:
There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial infarction for about 6 weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time. Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice given by health care providers.
Question 40
A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is:
A
Initiate closed-chest massage
B
Establish an airway
C
Obtain the crash cart
D
Start a peripheral IV
Question 40 Explanation:
Establishing an airway is always the primary objective in a cardiopulmonary arrest.
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NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 15 (EM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 40 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 15 (EM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip replacement 4 days ago. Which assessment requires the nurse’s immediate attention?
A
"I just can’t ‘catch my breath’ over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger."
B
"It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today."
C
"I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours."
D
I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
Question 1 Explanation:
The nurse would be concerned about all of these comments. However the most life threatening is answer choice "I just can’t ‘catch my breath’ over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.". Clients who have had hip or knee surgery are at greatest risk for development of post operative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are classic findings of pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms do not require immediate attention. Answer choice "I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours." may indicate a urinary tract infection. answer choice "It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today." requires further investigation and is not life threatening.
Question 2
While assessing a 1 month-old infant, which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A
Abdominal respirations
B
Increased heart rate with crying
C
Inspiratory grunt
D
Irregular breathing rate
Question 2 Explanation:
Inspiratory grunting is abnormal and may be a sign of respiratory distress in this infant.
Question 3
A nurse prepares to care for a 4 year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
A
The kidneys
B
The leg bones
C
The cerebellum
D
All striated muscles
Question 3 Explanation:
Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common children”s soft tissue sarcoma. It originates in striated (skeletal) muscles and can be found anywhere in the body. The clue is in the middle of the word and is “myo” which typically means muscle.
Question 4
A client has a Swan-Ganz catheter in place. The nurse understands that this is intended to measure:
A
Carotid artery function
B
Left heart function
C
Right heart function
D
Renal tubule function
Question 4 Explanation:
The Swan-Ganz catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery to obtain information about the left side of the heart. The pressure readings are inferred from pressure measurements obtained on the right side of the circulation. Right-sided heart function is assessed through the evaluation of the central venous pressures (CVP).
Question 5
A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropisol) 0.4 mg, and promethizine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?
A
Have the client empty bladder
B
Instruct the client to remain in bedv
C
Place the call bell within reach
D
Raise the side rails on the bed
Question 5 Explanation:
The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication.
Question 6
During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
A
Increase fluids that are high in protein
B
Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
C
Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
D
Restrict fluids
Question 6 Explanation:
Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 15 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent usually accompanied by dizziness indicates volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.
Question 7
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client 7 days post myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait 6 weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
A
"Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."
B
"If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."
C
"When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe.”
D
"You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."
Question 7 Explanation:
There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial infarction for about 6 weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time. Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice given by health care providers.
Question 8
A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is
A
Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B
Manage pain
C
Control nausea
D
Prevent urinary tract infection
Question 8 Explanation:
The immediate goal of therapy is to alleviate the client’s pain.
Question 9
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right CVA. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
A
Loss of bladder control
B
Decrease in level of consciousness
C
Emotional ability
D
Altered sensation to stimuli
Question 9 Explanation:
A further decrease in the level of consciousness would be indicative of a further progression of the CVA.
Question 10
A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
A
Chlamydia
B
Streptococcus
C
Trichomoniasis
D
Staphylococcus
Question 10 Explanation:
Chlamydial infections are one of the most frequent causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 11
The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the priority goal would be to
A
Achieve harmony
B
Restore yin and yang
C
Respect life
D
Maintain a balance of energy
Question 11 Explanation:
For followers of Chinese medicine, health is maintained through balance between the forces of yin and yang.
Question 12
Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain break through for morphine drip is not working?
A
The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon
B
The level of drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
C
The client states "I just can’t get relief from my pain."
D
The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
Question 12 Explanation:
The minimal dose of 10 ml per hour which would be 40 ml given in a 4 hour period. Only 60 ml should be left at noon. The pump is not functioning when more than expected medicine is left in the container.
Question 13
The nurse is caring for a client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
A
Begin proteolytic debridement
B
Improve the client’s nutrition status
C
Apply dressing using sterile technique
D
Initiate limb compression therapy
Question 13 Explanation:
The goal of clinical management in a client with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. This only can be accomplished with proper nutrition. The other answers are correct, but without proper nutrition, the other interventions would be of little help.
Question 14
During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which statement by a family member?
A
We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24 hour alarms on the doors.
B
We go to a group discussion every week at our community center.
C
At least 2 full meals a day is eaten.
D
The medication is not a problem to have it taken 3 times a day.
Question 14 Explanation:
Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority of home care. Note all options are correct statements. However, safety is most important to reinforce.
Question 15
A triage nurse has these 4 clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?
A
A 2 month old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and has bulging fontanels with crying
B
An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown colored stools
C
A teenager who got a singed beard while camping
D
A middle aged client with intermittent pain behind the right scapula
Question 15 Explanation:
A client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory distress, Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or fire in close range that could have caused damage to the interior of the lung. Note that the interior lining of the lung has no nerve fibers so the client will not be aware of swelling.
Question 16
A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is:
A
Obtain the crash cart
B
Establish an airway
C
Start a peripheral IV
D
Initiate closed-chest massage
Question 16 Explanation:
Establishing an airway is always the primary objective in a cardiopulmonary arrest.
Question 17
At a community health fair the blood pressure of a 62 year-old client is 160/96. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to
A
visit the health care provider within 1 week for a BP check
B
go get a blood pressure check within the next 48 to 72 hours
C
check blood pressure again in 2 months
D
see the health care provider immediately
Question 17 Explanation:
The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked in a few days. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. However immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long.
Question 18
A child who ingested 15 maximum strength acetaminophen tablets 45 minutes ago is seen in the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
A
Activated charcoal per pharmacy
B
Gastric lavage PRN
C
Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep vein open
D
Acetylcysteine (mucomyst) for age per pharmacy
Question 18 Explanation:
Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for this drug overdose. This is best done by gastric lavage. The next drug to give would be activated charcoal, then mucomyst and lastly the IV fluids.
Question 19
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq KCL in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
A
Shortened "PR" interval
B
Narrowed QRS complex
C
Tall peaked T waves
D
Prominent "U" waves
Question 19 Explanation:
A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The health care provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication.
Question 20
Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
A
falling blood pressure
B
thrombus formation
C
angina at rest
D
dizziness
Question 20 Explanation:
Thrombus formation in the coronary arteries is a potential problem in the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization. A falling BP occurs along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure.
Question 21
The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is
A
Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order
B
Verify correct placement of the tube
C
Ensure that feeding solution is at room temperature
D
Aspirate abdominal contents to determine the amount of last feeding remaining in stomach
Question 21 Explanation:
Proper placement of the tube prevents aspiration.
Question 22
A client with multiple sclerosis plans to begin an exercise program. In addition to discussing the benefits of regular exercise, the nurse should caution the client to avoid activities which:
A
Lead to dehydration
B
May be competitive
C
Are considered aerobic
D
Increase the heart rate
Question 22 Explanation:
The client must take in adequate fluids before and during exercise periods.
Question 23
Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?
A
Client must be NPO before the examination
B
No special orders are necessary for this examination
C
Medicate client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes prior to the examination
D
Enema to be administered prior to the examination
Question 23 Explanation:
No special preparation is necessary for this examination.
Question 24
The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs 2 hours ago. The nurse should:
A
Instruct the client’s wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse
B
Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
C
Reassure the client’s wife that the symptoms are transient
D
Place a call to the client’s health care provider for instructions
Question 24 Explanation:
This client requires immediate evaluation. A delay in treatment could result in further deterioration and harm. Home care nurses must prioritize interventions based on assessment findings that are in the client’s best interest.
Question 25
A client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:
A
Will decrease the client’s heart rate
B
May decrease the client’s energy level
C
Must be stored in a dark container
D
Should be taken in the morning
Question 25 Explanation:
Thyroid supplement should be taken in the morning to minimize the side effects of insomnia
Question 26
In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school age child for evaluation?
A
Dehydration
B
Bed wetting
C
Weight loss
D
Polyphagia
Question 26 Explanation:
In children, fatigue and bed wetting are the chief complaints that prompt parents to take their child for evaluation. Bed wetting in a school age child is readily detected by the parents.
Question 27
What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years?
A
Little change in body appearance from year to year
B
Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass
C
Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year
D
Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year
Question 27 Explanation:
School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height.
Question 28
When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize
A
Avoiding very heavy meals
B
Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day
C
Adding complex carbohydrates
D
Eating 3 balanced meals a day
Question 28 Explanation:
Eating large, heavy meals can pull blood away from the heart for digestion and is dangerous for the client with coronary artery disease.
Question 29
The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
A
A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over 10 years and admitted with antibiotic induced diarrhea 24 hours ago
B
A middle aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over 7 years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago
C
An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning
D
An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitus of the lower leg 48 hours ago
Question 29 Explanation:
The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar with their care. This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home.
Question 30
A 3 year-old child comes to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
A
Prepare the child for x-ray of upper airways
B
Notify the healthcare provider of the child’s status
C
Examine the child’s throat
D
Collect a sputum specimen
Question 30 Explanation:
These findings suggest a medical emergency and may be due to epiglottises. Any child with an acute onset of an inflammatory response in the mouth and throat should receive immediate attention in a facility equipped to perform intubation or a tracheostomy in the event of further or complete obstruction.
Question 31
An RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
A
A young adult who says "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking 2 days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"
B
An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit" 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room
C
A middle-aged client who says "I took too many diet pills" and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."
D
An adolescent who has been on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10
Question 31 Explanation:
Nurses who are floated to other units should be assigned to a client who has minimal anticipated immediate complications of their problem. The client on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10 exhibits opoid toxicity with the pinpoint pupils and has the least risk of complications to occur in the near future.
Question 32
A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3 year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
A
Gravida 3 para 2
B
Gravida 2 para 1
C
Gravida 3 para 1
D
Gravida 4 para 2
Question 32 Explanation:
Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of pregnancies that reach viability (not the number of fetuses). Thus, for this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1 viable birth (twins).
Question 33
A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
A
Weight gain of 5 pounds
B
Edema of the ankles
C
Decreased appetite
D
Gastric irritability
Question 33 Explanation:
Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias.
Question 34
Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?
A
45 year-old African American attorney
B
40 year-old Caucasian nurse
C
60 year-old Asian American shop owner
D
55 year-old Hisapanic teacher
Question 34 Explanation:
The incidence of hypertension is greater among African Americans than other groups in the US. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising.
Question 35
While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child’s developmental needs?
A
"I will set limits on exploring the house."
B
"I understand the need to use those new skills."
C
"I intend to keep control over our child."
D
"I want to protect my child from any falls."
Question 35 Explanation:
Erikson describes the stage of the toddler as being the time when there is normally an increase in autonomy. The child needs to use motor skills to explore the environment.
Question 36
Which of these statements best describes the characteristic of an effective reward-feedback system?
A
Staff are given feedback in equal amounts over time
B
Positive statements are to precede a negative statement
C
Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
D
Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
Question 36 Explanation:
Feedback is most useful when given immediately. Positive behavior is strengthened through immediate feedback, and it is easier to modify problem behaviors if the standards are clearly understood.
Question 37
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post mature fetus is at risk due to:
A
Depletion of subcutaneous fat
B
Progressive placental insufficiency
C
Low blood sugar levels
D
Excessive fetal weight
Question 37 Explanation:
The placenta functions less efficiently as pregnancy continues beyond 42 weeks. Immediate and long term effects may be related to hypoxia.
Question 38
The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse’s response?
A
Exercise of joints
B
Mind-body balance
C
Electrical energy fields
D
Spinal column manipulation
Question 38 Explanation:
The theory underlying chiropractic is that interference with transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs produces diseases. Such interference is caused by misalignment of the vertebrae. Manipulation reduces the subluxation.
Question 39
A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?
A
Moist, productive cough
B
Bulky greasy stools
C
Meconium ileus
D
Positive sweat test
Question 39 Explanation:
Moist, productive cough is a later sign. Noisy respirations and a dry non-productive cough are commonly the first of the respiratory signs to appear in a newly diagnosed client with cystic fibrosis (CF). The other options are the earliest findings. CF is an inherited (genetic) condition affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat, saliva and digestive juices. Normally, these secretions are thin and slippery, but in CF, a defective gene causes the secretions to become thick and sticky. Instead of acting as a lubricant, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts and passageways, especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is the most dangerous consequence of CF.
Question 40
A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg. Daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg. B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
A
Heart rate 76
B
Blood pressure 94/60
C
Urine output 50 ml/hour
D
Respiratory rate 16
Question 40 Explanation:
Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within normal range (HR 60-100; systolic B/P over 100) in order to safely administer both medications.
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1. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?
45 year-old African American attorney
60 year-old Asian American shop owner
40 year-old Caucasian nurse
55 year-old Hispanic teacher
2. A child who ingested 15 maximum strength acetaminophen tablets 45 minutes ago is seen in the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
Gastric lavage PRN
Acetylcysteine (mucomyst) for age per pharmacy
Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep vein open
Activated charcoal per pharmacy
3. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
angina at rest
thrombus formation
dizziness
falling blood pressure
4. A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is
Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
Control nausea
Manage pain
Prevent urinary tract infection
5. What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years?
Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass
Little change in body appearance from year to year
Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year
Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year
6. At a community health fair the blood pressure of a 62 year-old client is 160/96. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to
go get a blood pressure check within the next 48 to 72 hours
check blood pressure again in 2 months
see the health care provider immediately
visit the health care provider within 1 week for a BP check
7. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
A middle aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over 7 years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago
A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over 10 years and admitted with antibiotic induced diarrhea 24 hours ago
An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning
An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitus of the lower leg 48 hours ago
8. A client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:
Should be taken in the morning
May decrease the client’s energy level
Must be stored in a dark container
Will decrease the client’s heart rate
9. A 3 year-old child comes to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
Prepare the child for x-ray of upper airways
Examine the child’s throat
Collect a sputum specimen
Notify the healthcare provider of the child’s status
10. In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school age child for evaluation?
Polyphagia
Dehydration
Bed wetting
Weight loss
11. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
Trichomoniasis
Chlamydia
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
12. An RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
A middle-aged client who says “I took too many diet pills” and “my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest.”
A young adult who says “I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking 2 days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?”
An adolescent who has been on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10
An elderly client who reports having taken a “large crack hit” 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room
13. When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize
Eating 3 balanced meals a day
Adding complex carbohydrates
Avoiding very heavy meals
Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day
14. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain break through for morphine drip is not working?
The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
The client states “I just can’t get relief from my pain.”
The level of drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon
15. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse’s response?
Electrical energy fields
Spinal column manipulation
Mind-body balance
Exercise of joints
16. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right CVA. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
Decrease in level of consciousness
Loss of bladder control
Altered sensation to stimuli
Emotional ability
17. A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?
Positive sweat test
Bulky greasy stools
Moist, productive cough
Meconium ileus
18. The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs 2 hours ago. The nurse should
Place a call to the client’s health care provider for instructions
Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
Reassure the client’s wife that the symptoms are transient
Instruct the client’s wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse
19. Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?
Client must be NPO before the examination
Enema to be administered prior to the examination
Medicate client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes prior to the examination
No special orders are necessary for this examination
20. The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client 7 days post myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait 6 weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
“You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion.”
“When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe.”
“Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex.”
“If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk.”
21. A triage nurse has these 4 clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?
A 2 month old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and has bulging fontanels with crying
A teenager who got a singed beard while camping
An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown colored stools
A middle aged client with intermittent pain behind the right scapula
22. While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child’s developmental needs?
“I want to protect my child from any falls.”
“I will set limits on exploring the house.”
“I understand the need to use those new skills.”
“I intend to keep control over our child.”
23. The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is
Verify correct placement of the tube
Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order
Aspirate abdominal contents to determine the amount of last feeding remaining in stomach
Ensure that feeding solution is at room temperature
24. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq KCL in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
Narrowed QRS complex
Shortened “PR” interval
Tall peaked T waves
Prominent “U” waves
25. A nurse prepares to care for a 4 year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
All striated muscles
The cerebellum
The kidneys
The leg bones
26. The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the priority goal would be to
Achieve harmony
Maintain a balance of energy
Respect life
Restore yin and yang
27. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to
Increase fluids that are high in protein
Restrict fluids
Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
28. A client has a Swan-Ganz catheter in place. The nurse understands that this is intended to measure
Right heart function
Left heart function
Renal tubule function
Carotid artery function
29. A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is
Start a peripheral IV
Initiate closed-chest massage
Establish an airway
Obtain the crash cart
30. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg. Daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg. B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
Blood pressure 94/60
Heart rate 76
Urine output 50 ml/hour
Respiratory rate 16
31. While assessing a 1 month-old infant, which finding should the nurse report immediately?
Abdominal respirations
Irregular breathing rate
Inspiratory grunt
Increased heart rate with crying
32. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post mature fetus is at risk due to
Excessive fetal weight
Low blood sugar levels
Depletion of subcutaneous fat
Progressive placental insufficiency
33. The nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip replacement 4 days ago. Which assessment requires the nurse’s immediate attention?
I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
“I just can’t ‘catch my breath’ over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.”
“I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.”
“It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.”
34. A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
Weight gain of 5 pounds
Edema of the ankles
Gastric irritability
Decreased appetite
35. A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3 year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
Gravida 4 para 2
Gravida 2 para 1
Gravida 3 para 1
Gravida 3 para 2
36. The nurse is caring for a client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
Apply dressing using sterile technique
Improve the client’s nutrition status
Initiate limb compression therapy
Begin proteolytic debridement
37. A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropisol) 0.4 mg, and promethizine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?
Raise the side rails on the bed
Place the call bell within reach
Instruct the client to remain in bed
Have the client empty bladder
38. Which of these statements best describes the characteristic of an effective reward-feedback system?
Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
Staff are given feedback in equal amounts over time
Positive statements are to precede a negative statement
Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
39. A client with multiple sclerosis plans to begin an exercise program. In addition to discussing the benefits of regular exercise, the nurse should caution the client to avoid activities which
Increase the heart rate
Lead to dehydration
Are considered aerobic
May be competitive
40. During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which statement by a family member?
At least 2 full meals a day is eaten.
We go to a group discussion every week at our community center.
We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24 hour alarms on the doors.
The medication is not a problem to have it taken 3 times a day.
Answers and Rationales
The correct answer is A: 45 year-old African American attorney The incidence of hypertension is greater among African Americans than other groups in the US. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising.
The correct answer is A: Gastric lavage PRN Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for this drug overdose. This is best done by gastric lavage. The next drug to give would be activated charcoal, then mucomyst and lastly the IV fluids.
The correct answer is B: thrombus formation Thrombus formation in the coronary arteries is a potential problem in the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization. A falling BP occurs along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure.
The correct answer is C: Manage pain The immediate goal of therapy is to alleviate the client’s pain.
The correct answer is D: Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height.
The correct answer is A: go get a blood pressure check within the next 48 to 72 hours The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked in a few days. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. However immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long.
The correct answer is A: A middle aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over 7 years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar with their care. This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home.
The correct answer is A: Should be taken in the morning Thyroid supplement should be taken in the morning to minimize the side effects of insomnia
The correct answer is D: Notify the health care provider of the child”s status These findings suggest a medical emergency and may be due to epiglottises. Any child with an acute onset of an inflammatory response in the mouth and throat should receive immediate attention in a facility equipped to perform intubation or a tracheostomy in the event of further or complete obstruction.
The correct answer is C: Bed wetting In children, fatigue and bed wetting are the chief complaints that prompt parents to take their child for evaluation. Bed wetting in a school age child is readily detected by the parents.
The correct answer is B: Chlamydia Chlamydial infections are one of the most frequent causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
The correct answer is C: An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10 Nurses who are floated to other units should be assigned to a client who has minimal anticipated immediate complications of their problem. The client in option C exhibits opoid toxicity with the pinpoint pupils and has the least risk of complications to occur in the near future.
The correct answer is C: Avoiding very heavy meals eating large, heavy meals can pull blood away from the heart for digestion and is dangerous for the client with coronary artery disease.
The correct answer is C: The level of drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon The minimal dose of 10 ml per hour which would be 40 ml given in a 4 hour period. Only 60 ml should be left at noon. The pump is not functioning when more than expected medicine is left in the container.
The correct answer is B: Spinal column manipulation The theory underlying chiropractic is that interference with transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs produces diseases. Such interference is caused by misalignment of the vertebrae. Manipulation reduces the subluxation.
The correct answer is A: Decrease in level of consciousness A further decrease in the level of consciousness would be indicative of a further progression of the CVA.
The correct answer is C: Moist, productive cough Option c is a later sign. Noisy respirations and a dry non-productive cough are commonly the first of the respiratory signs to appear in a newly diagnosed client with cystic fibrosis (CF). The other options are the earliest findings. CF is an inherited (genetic) condition affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat, saliva and digestive juices. Normally, these secretions are thin and slippery, but in CF, a defective gene causes the secretions to become thick and sticky. Instead of acting as a lubricant, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts and passageways, especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is the most dangerous consequence of CF.
The correct answer is B: Send him to the emergency room for evaluation This client requires immediate evaluation. A delay in treatment could result in further deterioration and harm. Home care nurses must prioritize interventions based on assessment findings that are in the client’s best interest.
The correct answer is D: No special orders are necessary for this examination No special preparation is necessary for this examination.
The correct answer is B: “When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe.” There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial infarction for about 6 weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time. Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice given by health care providers.
The correct answer is B: A teenager who got singed a singed beard while camping This client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory distress, Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or fire in close range that could have caused damage to the interior of the lung. Note that the interior lining of the lung has no nerve fibers so the client will not be aware of swelling.
The correct answer is C: “I understand the need to use those new skills.” Erikson describes the stage of the toddler as being the time when there is normally an increase in autonomy. The child needs to use motor skills to explore the environment.
The correct answer is A: Verify correct placement of the tube Proper placement of the tube prevents aspiration.
The correct answer is C: Tall peaked T waves A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The health care provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication.
The correct answer is A: All striated muscles Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common children”s soft tissue sarcoma. It originates in striated (skeletal) muscles and can be found anywhere in the body. The clue is in the middle of the word and is “myo” which typically means muscle.
The correct answer is D: Restore yin and yang For followers of Chinese medicine, health is maintained through balance between the forces of yin and yang.
The correct answer is C: Force fluids and reassess blood pressure Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 15 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent usually accompanied by dizziness indicates volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.
The correct answer is B: Left heart function The Swan-Ganz catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery to obtain information about the left side of the heart. The pressure readings are inferred from pressure measurements obtained on the right side of the circulation. Right-sided heart function is assessed through the evaluation of the central venous pressures (CVP).
The correct answer is C: Establish an airway Establishing an airway is always the primary objective in a cardiopulmonary arrest.
The correct answer is A: Blood pressure 94/60 Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within normal range (HR 60-100; systolic B/P over 100) in order to safely administer both medications.
The correct answer is C: Inspiratory grunt Inspiratory grunting is abnormal and may be a sign of respiratory distress in this infant.
The correct answer is D: Progressive placental insufficiency The placenta functions less efficiently as pregnancy continues beyond 42 weeks. Immediate and long term effects may be related to hypoxia.
The correct answer is B: “I just can”t ”catch my breath” over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.” The nurse would be concerned about all of these comments. However the most life threatening is option B. Clients who have had hip or knee surgery are at greatest risk for development of post operative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are classic findings of pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms do not require immediate attention. Option C may indicate a urinary tract infection. And option D requires further investigation and is not life threatening.
The correct answer is D: Decreased appetite Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias.
The correct answer is C: Gravida 3 para 1 Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of pregnancies that reach viability (not the number of fetuses). Thus, for this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1 viable birth (twins).
The correct answer is B: Improve the client”s nutrition status The goal of clinical management in a client with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. This only can be accomplished with proper nutrition. The other answers are correct, but without proper nutrition, the other interventions would be of little help.
The correct answer is D: Have the client empty bladder The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication. The other actions follow this initial step in this sequence: 4 3 1 2
The correct answer is A: Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible Feedback is most useful when given immediately. Positive behavior is strengthened through immediate feedback, and it is easier to modify problem behaviors if the standards are clearly understood.
The correct answer is B: Lead to dehydration The client must take in adequate fluids before and during exercise periods.
The correct answer is C: We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24 hour alarms on the doors. Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority of home care. Note all options are correct statements. However, safety is most important to reinforce.