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NCLEX Practice Exam for Neurologic System 2 (PM)
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Question 1
A female client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, “Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without help!” This comment best supports which nursing diagnosis?
A
Risk for disuse syndrome
B
Anxiety
C
Powerlessness
D
Ineffective denial
Question 1 Explanation:
This comment best supports a nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness because ALS may lead to locked-in syndrome, characterized by an active and functioning mind locked in a body that can’t perform even simple daily tasks. Although Anxiety and Risk for disuse syndrome may be diagnoses associated with ALS, the client’s comment specifically refers to an inability to act autonomously. A diagnosis of Ineffective denial would be indicated if the client didn’t seem to perceive the personal relevance of symptoms or danger.
Question 2
A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing automatic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence?
A
Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program
B
Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client
C
Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs
D
Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours
Question 2 Explanation:
The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.
Question 3
Female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse inquires during the nursing admission interview if the client has history of:
A
Meningitis during the last 5 years
B
Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord
C
Seizures or trauma to the brain
D
Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month.
Question 3 Explanation:
Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. Occasionally, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.
Question 4
A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as:
A
Taking excess medication
B
Increasing intake of fatty foods
C
Getting too little exercise
D
Omitting doses of medication
Question 4 Explanation:
Myasthenic crisis often is caused by undermedication and responds to the administration of cholinergic medications, such as neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and fatty food intake are incorrect. Overexertion and overeating possibly could trigger myasthenic crisis.
Question 5
A female client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?
A
“You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary.”
B
“You’ll first regain use of your legs and then your arms.”
C
“You’ll have to accept the fact that you’re permanently paralyzed. However, you won’t have any sensory loss.”
D
“It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis.”
Question 5 Explanation:
The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.
Question 6
The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid?
A
Head mildline
B
Head turned to the side
C
Neck in neutral position
D
Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
Question 6 Explanation:
The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head is in a neutral midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the client’s neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep intracranial pressure down.
Question 7
During a routine physical examination to assess a male client’s deep tendon reflexes, the nurse should make sure to:
A
hold the reflex hammer tightly.
B
support the joint where the tendon is being tested.
C
use the pointed end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon.
D
tap the tendon slowly and softly
Question 7 Explanation:
To prevent the attached muscle from contracting, the nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested. The nurse should use the flat, not pointed, end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon. (The pointed end is used to strike over small areas, such as the thumb placed over the biceps tendon.) Tapping the tendon slowly and softly wouldn’t provoke a deep tendon reflex response. The nurse should hold the reflex hammer loosely, not tightly, between the thumb and fingers so it can swing in an arc.
Question 8
The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the female client to changes in functional status after a brain attack (stroke). The nurse assesses that the client is adapting most successfully if the client:
A
Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils
B
Experiences bouts of depression and irritability
C
Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self
D
Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task
Question 8 Explanation:
Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a brain attack (stroke) if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions.Other answer choices are not adaptive behaviors.
Question 9
The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious male client. The nurse would plan to use which plan to use which of the following to test the client’s peripheral response to pain?
A
Nail bed pressure
B
Sternal rub
C
Pressure on the orbital rim
D
Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Question 9 Explanation:
Motor testing in the unconscious client can be done only by testing response to painful stimuli. Nail bed pressure tests a basic peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Question 10
A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA?
A
Female sex
B
Bronchial asthma
C
Obesity
D
Caucasian race
Question 10 Explanation:
Obesity is a risk factor for CVA. Other risk factors include a history of ischemic episodes, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis of the cranial vessels, hypertension, polycythemia, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, oral contraceptive use, emotional stress, family history of CVA, and advancing age. The client’s race, sex, and bronchial asthma aren’t risk factors for CVA.
Question 11
The nurse has given the male client with Bell’s palsy instructions on preserving muscle tone in the face and preventing denervation. The nurse determines that the client needs additional information if the client states that he or she will:
A
Wrinkle the forehead, blow out the cheeks, and whistle
B
Massage the face with a gentle upward motion
C
Perform facial exercises
D
Exposure to cold and drafts
Question 11 Explanation:
Prevention of muscle atrophy with Bell’s palsy is accomplished with facial massage, facial exercises, and electrical stimulation of the nerves. Exposure to cold or drafts is avoided. Local application of heat to the face may improve blood flow and provide comfort.
Question 12
A female client with Guillian-Barre syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following strategies would the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness?
A
Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion
B
Providing intravaneously administered sedatives, reducing distractions and limiting visitors
C
Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors
D
Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation
Question 12 Explanation:
The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client’s condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.
Question 13
For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to:
A
promote carbon dioxide elimination
B
prevent respiratory alkalosis.
C
maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg
D
lower arterial pH.
Question 13 Explanation:
The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this case. It isn’t necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.
Question 14
The nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must logroll a male client following a:
A
thoracotomy
B
cystectomy
C
hemorrhoidectomy
D
laminectomy
Question 14 Explanation:
The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be logrolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. The client who has had a thoracotomy or cystectomy may turn himself or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.
Question 15
The nurse is assigned to care for a female client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse plans care knowing that this condition:
A
The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs.
B
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
C
The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue
D
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
Question 15 Explanation:
Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. Complete hemiparesis is weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in this condition. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.
Question 16
A male client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse would plan to do which of the following to ensure client to ensure client safety?
A
Test the temperature of the shower water
B
Check the temperature of the food on the delivery tray.
C
Speak loudly to the client
D
Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles
Question 16 Explanation:
Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were an impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerve VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior third of the tongue, respectively.
Question 17
The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated?
A
Positioning the client to side, if possible, with the head flexed forward
B
Loosening restrictive clothing
C
Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails
D
Restraining the client’s limbs
Question 17 Explanation:
Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising side rails in the bed, and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client. Other aspects of care are as described for the client who is in bed.
Question 18
A male client with Bell’s palsy asks the nurse what has caused this problem. The nurse’s response is based on an understanding that the cause is:
A
Primary genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to meningitis
B
Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to neurotoxins
C
Unknown, but possibly includes long-term tissue malnutrition and cellular hypoxia
D
Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem
Question 18 Explanation:
Bell’s palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of the facial nerve. The exact cause is unknown, but may include vascular ischemia, infection, exposure to viruses such as herpes zoster or herpes simplex, autoimmune disease, or a combination of these factors.
Question 19
The nurse is teaching a female client with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to:
A
avoid naps during the day
B
take a hot bath.
C
increase the dose of muscle relaxants
D
rest in an air-conditioned room
Question 19 Explanation:
Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with multiple sclerosis. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with multiple sclerosis include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.
Question 20
A female client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client’s behavior
A
Demonstrate inability to add and subtract; does not know who is president
B
Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today
C
Is disoriented to person, place, and time
D
Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability
Question 20 Explanation:
The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relates to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.
Question 21
A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position?
A
Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg’s position
B
Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
C
Side-lying, with the legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest.
D
Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen
Question 21 Explanation:
The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae.
Question 22
A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test?
A
Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish.
B
Place a cap over the client’s head.
C
Administer a sedative as ordered
D
Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher.
Question 22 Explanation:
Because CT commonly involves use of a contrast agent, the nurse should determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. Neck immobilization is necessary only if the client has a suspected spinal cord injury. Placing a cap over the client’s head may lead to misinterpretation of test results; instead, the hair should be combed smoothly. The physician orders a sedative only if the client can’t be expected to remain still during the CT scan.
Question 23
A female client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem asks the nurse whether magnetic resonance imaging may be done. The nurse interprets that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based on the client’s history of:
A
Prosthetic valve replacement
B
Hypertension
C
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
D
Heart failure
Question 23 Explanation:
The client having a magnetic resonance imaging scan has all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is obtained to determine whether any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if significant risk exists.
Question 24
The client with a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. When a diet order is initiated, the nurse avoids doing which of the following?
A
Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth
B
Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing
C
Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal
D
Giving the client thin liquids
Question 24 Explanation:
Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration.
Question 25
A male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?
A
Take measures to prevent injury
B
Restrain the client’s arms and legs
C
Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth
D
Elevate the head of the bed.
Question 25 Explanation:
Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed would have no effect on the client’s condition or safety. Restraining the client’s arms and legs could cause injury. Placing a tongue blade or other object in the client’s mouth could damage the teeth.
Question 26
The nurse is teaching the female client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by:
A
Doing muscle-strengthening exercises
B
Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
C
Eating large, well-balanced meals
D
Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels
Question 26 Explanation:
Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.
Question 27
Nurse Maureen witnesses a neighbor’s husband sustain a fall from the roof of his house. The nurse rushes to the victim and determines the need to opens the airway in this victim by using which method?
A
Modified head tilt-chin lift
B
Flexed position
C
Head tilt-chin lift
D
Jaw thrust maneuver
Question 27 Explanation:
If a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway. The head tilt–chin lift maneuver produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. A flexed position is an inappropriate position for opening the airway.
Question 28
A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid:
A
Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose
B
Is clear and tests negative for glucose
C
Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6
D
Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7
Question 28 Explanation:
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.
Question 29
A female client is admitted in a disoriented and restless state after sustaining a concussion during a car accident. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority in this client’s plan of care?
A
Risk for injury
B
Disturbed sensory perception (visual)
C
Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming
D
Impaired verbal communication
Question 29 Explanation:
Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is risk for injury. Although the other options may be appropriate, they’re secondary because they don’t immediately affect the client’s health or safety.
Question 30
Nurse Kristine is trying to communicate with a client with brain attack (stroke) and aphasia. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be least helpful to the client?
A
Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond
B
Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish
C
Speaking to the client at a slower rate
D
Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech
Question 30 Explanation:
Clients with aphasia after brain attack (stroke) often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse would avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing rushed for a response, and letting family members provide all the responses for the client.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Neurologic System 2 (EM)
Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 30 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!
Start
Congratulations - you have completed NCLEX Practice Exam for Neurologic System 2 (EM).
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid?
A
Head turned to the side
B
Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
C
Head mildline
D
Neck in neutral position
Question 1 Explanation:
The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head is in a neutral midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the client’s neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep intracranial pressure down.
Question 2
The nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must logroll a male client following a:
A
thoracotomy
B
laminectomy
C
hemorrhoidectomy
D
cystectomy
Question 2 Explanation:
The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be logrolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. The client who has had a thoracotomy or cystectomy may turn himself or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.
Question 3
A female client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem asks the nurse whether magnetic resonance imaging may be done. The nurse interprets that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based on the client’s history of:
A
Heart failure
B
Prosthetic valve replacement
C
Hypertension
D
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
Question 3 Explanation:
The client having a magnetic resonance imaging scan has all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is obtained to determine whether any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if significant risk exists.
Question 4
A female client is admitted in a disoriented and restless state after sustaining a concussion during a car accident. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority in this client’s plan of care?
A
Disturbed sensory perception (visual)
B
Risk for injury
C
Impaired verbal communication
D
Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming
Question 4 Explanation:
Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is risk for injury. Although the other options may be appropriate, they’re secondary because they don’t immediately affect the client’s health or safety.
Question 5
The nurse has given the male client with Bell’s palsy instructions on preserving muscle tone in the face and preventing denervation. The nurse determines that the client needs additional information if the client states that he or she will:
A
Wrinkle the forehead, blow out the cheeks, and whistle
B
Perform facial exercises
C
Exposure to cold and drafts
D
Massage the face with a gentle upward motion
Question 5 Explanation:
Prevention of muscle atrophy with Bell’s palsy is accomplished with facial massage, facial exercises, and electrical stimulation of the nerves. Exposure to cold or drafts is avoided. Local application of heat to the face may improve blood flow and provide comfort.
Question 6
The client with a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. When a diet order is initiated, the nurse avoids doing which of the following?
A
Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal
B
Giving the client thin liquids
C
Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing
D
Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth
Question 6 Explanation:
Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration.
Question 7
The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the female client to changes in functional status after a brain attack (stroke). The nurse assesses that the client is adapting most successfully if the client:
A
Experiences bouts of depression and irritability
B
Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task
C
Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self
D
Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils
Question 7 Explanation:
Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a brain attack (stroke) if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions.Other answer choices are not adaptive behaviors.
Question 8
The nurse is assigned to care for a female client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse plans care knowing that this condition:
A
The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs.
B
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
C
The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue
D
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
Question 8 Explanation:
Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. Complete hemiparesis is weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in this condition. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.
Question 9
The nurse is teaching the female client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by:
A
Eating large, well-balanced meals
B
Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
C
Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels
D
Doing muscle-strengthening exercises
Question 9 Explanation:
Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.
Question 10
Nurse Maureen witnesses a neighbor’s husband sustain a fall from the roof of his house. The nurse rushes to the victim and determines the need to opens the airway in this victim by using which method?
A
Jaw thrust maneuver
B
Head tilt-chin lift
C
Modified head tilt-chin lift
D
Flexed position
Question 10 Explanation:
If a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway. The head tilt–chin lift maneuver produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. A flexed position is an inappropriate position for opening the airway.
Question 11
A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing automatic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence?
A
Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client
B
Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program
C
Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours
D
Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs
Question 11 Explanation:
The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.
Question 12
A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test?
A
Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher.
B
Administer a sedative as ordered
C
Place a cap over the client’s head.
D
Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish.
Question 12 Explanation:
Because CT commonly involves use of a contrast agent, the nurse should determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. Neck immobilization is necessary only if the client has a suspected spinal cord injury. Placing a cap over the client’s head may lead to misinterpretation of test results; instead, the hair should be combed smoothly. The physician orders a sedative only if the client can’t be expected to remain still during the CT scan.
Question 13
A male client with Bell’s palsy asks the nurse what has caused this problem. The nurse’s response is based on an understanding that the cause is:
A
Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem
B
Primary genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to meningitis
C
Unknown, but possibly includes long-term tissue malnutrition and cellular hypoxia
D
Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to neurotoxins
Question 13 Explanation:
Bell’s palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of the facial nerve. The exact cause is unknown, but may include vascular ischemia, infection, exposure to viruses such as herpes zoster or herpes simplex, autoimmune disease, or a combination of these factors.
Question 14
A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position?
A
Side-lying, with the legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest.
B
Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen
C
Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
D
Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg’s position
Question 14 Explanation:
The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae.
Question 15
Nurse Kristine is trying to communicate with a client with brain attack (stroke) and aphasia. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be least helpful to the client?
A
Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond
B
Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish
C
Speaking to the client at a slower rate
D
Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech
Question 15 Explanation:
Clients with aphasia after brain attack (stroke) often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse would avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing rushed for a response, and letting family members provide all the responses for the client.
Question 16
A female client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?
A
“You’ll first regain use of your legs and then your arms.”
B
“It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis.”
C
“You’ll have to accept the fact that you’re permanently paralyzed. However, you won’t have any sensory loss.”
D
“You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary.”
Question 16 Explanation:
The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.
Question 17
During a routine physical examination to assess a male client’s deep tendon reflexes, the nurse should make sure to:
A
use the pointed end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon.
B
support the joint where the tendon is being tested.
C
tap the tendon slowly and softly
D
hold the reflex hammer tightly.
Question 17 Explanation:
To prevent the attached muscle from contracting, the nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested. The nurse should use the flat, not pointed, end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon. (The pointed end is used to strike over small areas, such as the thumb placed over the biceps tendon.) Tapping the tendon slowly and softly wouldn’t provoke a deep tendon reflex response. The nurse should hold the reflex hammer loosely, not tightly, between the thumb and fingers so it can swing in an arc.
Question 18
A female client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, “Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without help!” This comment best supports which nursing diagnosis?
A
Risk for disuse syndrome
B
Anxiety
C
Ineffective denial
D
Powerlessness
Question 18 Explanation:
This comment best supports a nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness because ALS may lead to locked-in syndrome, characterized by an active and functioning mind locked in a body that can’t perform even simple daily tasks. Although Anxiety and Risk for disuse syndrome may be diagnoses associated with ALS, the client’s comment specifically refers to an inability to act autonomously. A diagnosis of Ineffective denial would be indicated if the client didn’t seem to perceive the personal relevance of symptoms or danger.
Question 19
The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated?
A
Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails
B
Restraining the client’s limbs
C
Positioning the client to side, if possible, with the head flexed forward
D
Loosening restrictive clothing
Question 19 Explanation:
Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising side rails in the bed, and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client. Other aspects of care are as described for the client who is in bed.
Question 20
A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid:
A
Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7
B
Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6
C
Is clear and tests negative for glucose
D
Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose
Question 20 Explanation:
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.
Question 21
Female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse inquires during the nursing admission interview if the client has history of:
A
Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month.
B
Seizures or trauma to the brain
C
Meningitis during the last 5 years
D
Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord
Question 21 Explanation:
Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. Occasionally, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.
Question 22
A male client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse would plan to do which of the following to ensure client to ensure client safety?
A
Check the temperature of the food on the delivery tray.
B
Speak loudly to the client
C
Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles
D
Test the temperature of the shower water
Question 22 Explanation:
Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were an impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerve VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior third of the tongue, respectively.
Question 23
The nurse is teaching a female client with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to:
A
rest in an air-conditioned room
B
increase the dose of muscle relaxants
C
avoid naps during the day
D
take a hot bath.
Question 23 Explanation:
Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with multiple sclerosis. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with multiple sclerosis include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.
Question 24
A female client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client’s behavior
A
Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today
B
Is disoriented to person, place, and time
C
Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability
D
Demonstrate inability to add and subtract; does not know who is president
Question 24 Explanation:
The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relates to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.
Question 25
For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to:
A
promote carbon dioxide elimination
B
maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg
C
prevent respiratory alkalosis.
D
lower arterial pH.
Question 25 Explanation:
The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this case. It isn’t necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.
Question 26
A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA?
A
Obesity
B
Caucasian race
C
Female sex
D
Bronchial asthma
Question 26 Explanation:
Obesity is a risk factor for CVA. Other risk factors include a history of ischemic episodes, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis of the cranial vessels, hypertension, polycythemia, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, oral contraceptive use, emotional stress, family history of CVA, and advancing age. The client’s race, sex, and bronchial asthma aren’t risk factors for CVA.
Question 27
A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as:
A
Increasing intake of fatty foods
B
Getting too little exercise
C
Omitting doses of medication
D
Taking excess medication
Question 27 Explanation:
Myasthenic crisis often is caused by undermedication and responds to the administration of cholinergic medications, such as neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and fatty food intake are incorrect. Overexertion and overeating possibly could trigger myasthenic crisis.
Question 28
A female client with Guillian-Barre syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following strategies would the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness?
A
Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation
B
Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors
C
Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion
D
Providing intravaneously administered sedatives, reducing distractions and limiting visitors
Question 28 Explanation:
The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client’s condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.
Question 29
A male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?
A
Elevate the head of the bed.
B
Restrain the client’s arms and legs
C
Take measures to prevent injury
D
Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth
Question 29 Explanation:
Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed would have no effect on the client’s condition or safety. Restraining the client’s arms and legs could cause injury. Placing a tongue blade or other object in the client’s mouth could damage the teeth.
Question 30
The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious male client. The nurse would plan to use which plan to use which of the following to test the client’s peripheral response to pain?
A
Nail bed pressure
B
Sternal rub
C
Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
D
Pressure on the orbital rim
Question 30 Explanation:
Motor testing in the unconscious client can be done only by testing response to painful stimuli. Nail bed pressure tests a basic peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.
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1. A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA?
Caucasian race
Female sex
Obesity
Bronchial asthma
2. The nurse is teaching a female client with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to:
take a hot bath.
rest in an air-conditioned room
increase the dose of muscle relaxants.
avoid naps during the day
3. A male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?
Elevate the head of the bed.
Restrain the client’s arms and legs.
Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth.
Take measures to prevent injury.
4. A female client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?
“You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary.”
“You’ll have to accept the fact that you’re permanently paralyzed. However, you won’t have any sensory loss.”
“It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis.”
“You’ll first regain use of your legs and then your arms.”
5. The nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must logroll a male client following a:
laminectomy.
thoracotomy.
hemorrhoidectomy.
cystectomy.
6. A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test?
Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher.
Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish.
Place a cap over the client’s head.
Administer a sedative as ordered.
7. During a routine physical examination to assess a male client’s deep tendon reflexes, the nurse should make sure to:
use the pointed end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon.
support the joint where the tendon is being tested.
tap the tendon slowly and softly
hold the reflex hammer tightly.
8. A female client is admitted in a disoriented and restless state after sustaining a concussion during a car accident. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority in this client’s plan of care?
Disturbed sensory perception (visual)
Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming
Impaired verbal communication
Risk for injury
9. A female client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, “Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without help!” This comment best supports which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety
Powerlessness
Ineffective denial
Risk for disuse syndrome
10. For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to:
prevent respiratory alkalosis.
lower arterial pH.
promote carbon dioxide elimination.
maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg
11. Nurse Maureen witnesses a neighbor’s husband sustain a fall from the roof of his house. The nurse rushes to the victim and determines the need to opens the airway in this victim by using which method?
Flexed position
Head tilt-chin lift
Jaw thrust maneuver
Modified head tilt-chin lift
12. The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious male client. The nurse would plan to use which plan to use which of the following to test the client’s peripheral response to pain?
Sternal rub
Nail bed pressure
Pressure on the orbital rim
Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
13. A female client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem asks the nurse whether magnetic resonance imaging may be done. The nurse interprets that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based on the client’s history of:
Hypertension
Heart failure
Prosthetic valve replacement
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
14. A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position?
Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen
Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg’s position
Side-lying, with the legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest.
15. The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid?
Head mildline
Head turned to the side
Neck in neutral position
Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
16. A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid:
Is clear and tests negative for glucose
Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6
Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7
Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose
17. A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence?
Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program
Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client
Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs
Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours
18. The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated?
Loosening restrictive clothing
Restraining the client’s limbs
Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails
Positioning the client to side, if possible, with the head flexed forward
19. The nurse is assigned to care for a female client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse plans care knowing that this condition:
The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs.
The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue.
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.
20. The client with a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. When a diet order is initiated, the nurse avoids doing which of the following?
Giving the client thin liquids
Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal
Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth
Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing
21. The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the female client to changes in functional status after a brain attack (stroke). The nurse assesses that the client is adapting most successfully if the client:
Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task
Experiences bouts of depression and irritability
Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils
Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self
22. Nurse Kristine is trying to communicate with a client with brain attack (stroke) and aphasia. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be least helpful to the client?
Speaking to the client at a slower rate
Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond
Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish
Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech
23. A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as:
Getting too little exercise
Taking excess medication
Omitting doses of medication
Increasing intake of fatty foods
24. The nurse is teaching the female client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by:
Eating large, well-balanced meals
Doing muscle-strengthening exercises
Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels
25. A male client with Bell’s palsy asks the nurse what has caused this problem. The nurse’s response is based on an understanding that the cause is:
Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem
Unknown, but possibly includes long-term tissue malnutrition and cellular hypoxia
Primary genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to meningitis
Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to neurotoxins
26. The nurse has given the male client with Bell’s palsy instructions on preserving muscle tone in the face and preventing denervation. The nurse determines that the client needs additional information if the client states that he or she will:
Exposure to cold and drafts
Massage the face with a gentle upward motion
Perform facial exercises
Wrinkle the forehead, blow out the cheeks, and whistle
27. Female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse inquires during the nursing admission interview if the client has history of:
Seizures or trauma to the brain
Meningitis during the last 5 years
Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord
Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month.
28. A female client with Guillian-Barre syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following strategies would the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness?
Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors
Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion
Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation
Providing intravaneously administered sedatives, reducing distractions and limiting visitors
29. A male client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse would plan to do which of the following to ensure client to ensure client safety?
Speak loudly to the client
Test the temperature of the shower water
Check the temperature of the food on the delivery tray.
Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles
30. A female client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client’s behavior.
Is disoriented to person, place, and time
Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability
Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today
Demonstrate inability to add and subtract; does not know who is president
Answers and Rationales
Answer C. Obesity is a risk factor for CVA. Other risk factors include a history of ischemic episodes, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis of the cranial vessels, hypertension, polycythemia, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, oral contraceptive use, emotional stress, family history of CVA, and advancing age. The client’s race, sex, and bronchial asthma aren’t risk factors for CVA
Answer B. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with multiple sclerosis. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with multiple sclerosis include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.
Answer D. Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed would have no effect on the client’s condition or safety. Restraining the client’s arms and legs could cause injury. Placing a tongue blade or other object in the client’s mouth could damage the teeth.
Answer A. The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.
Answer A. The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be logrolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. The client who has had a thoracotomy or cystectomy may turn himself or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.
Answer B. Because CT commonly involves use of a contrast agent, the nurse should determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. Neck immobilization is necessary only if the client has a suspected spinal cord injury. Placing a cap over the client’s head may lead to misinterpretation of test results; instead, the hair should be combed smoothly. The physician orders a sedative only if the client can’t be expected to remain still during the CT scan.
Answer B. To prevent the attached muscle from contracting, the nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested. The nurse should use the flat, not pointed, end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon. (The pointed end is used to strike over small areas, such as the thumb placed over the biceps tendon.) Tapping the tendon slowly and softly wouldn’t provoke a deep tendon reflex response. The nurse should hold the reflex hammer loosely, not tightly, between the thumb and fingers so it can swing in an arc.
Answer D. Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is risk for injury. Although the other options may be appropriate, they’re secondary because they don’t immediately affect the client’s health or safety.
Answer B. This comment best supports a nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness because ALS may lead to locked-in syndrome, characterized by an active and functioning mind locked in a body that can’t perform even simple daily tasks. Although Anxiety and Risk for disuse syndrome may be diagnoses associated with ALS, the client’s comment specifically refers to an inability to act autonomously. A diagnosis of Ineffective denial would be indicated if the client didn’t seem to perceive the personal relevance of symptoms or danger.
Answer C. The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this case. It isn’t necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.
Answer C. If a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway. The head tilt–chin lift maneuver produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. A flexed position is an inappropriate position for opening the airway.
Answer B. Motor testing in the unconscious client can be done only by testing response to painful stimuli. Nail bed pressure tests a basic peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Answer C. The client having a magnetic resonance imaging scan has all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is obtained to determine whether any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if significant risk exists.
Answer D. The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae.
Answer B. The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head is in a neutral midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the client’s neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep intracranial pressure down.
Answer D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.
Answer D. The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.
Answer B. Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising side rails in the bed, and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client. Other aspects of care are as described for the client who is in bed.
Answer B. Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. Complete hemiparesis is weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in this condition. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.
Answer A. Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration.
Answer D. Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a brain attack (stroke) if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions. Options A, B, and C are not adaptive behaviors.
Answer C. Clients with aphasia after brain attack (stroke) often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse would avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing rushed for a response, and letting family members provide all the responses for the client.
Answer C. Myasthenic crisis often is caused by undermedication and responds to the administration of cholinergic medications, such as neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and fatty food intake are incorrect. Overexertion and overeating possibly could trigger myasthenic crisis.
Answer D. Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.
Answer A. Bell’s palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of the facial nerve. The exact cause is unknown, but may include vascular ischemia, infection, exposure to viruses such as herpes zoster or herpes simplex, autoimmune disease, or a combination of these factors.
Answer A. Prevention of muscle atrophy with Bell’s palsy is accomplished with facial massage, facial exercises, and electrical stimulation of the nerves. Exposure to cold or drafts is avoided. Local application of heat to the face may improve blood flow and provide comfort.
Answer D. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. Occasionally, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.
Answer C. The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client’s condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.
Answer D. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were an impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerve VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior third of the tongue, respectively.
Answer B. The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relates to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.