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NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 6
NCLEX Exam

NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 6

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Safe and Effective Care Environment

1. A 68-year-old woman is diagnosed with thrombocytopenia due to acute lymphocytic leukemia. She is admitted to the hospital for treatment. The nurse should assign the patient

  1. to a private room so she will not infect other patients and health care workers.
  2. to a private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers.
  3. to a semiprivate room so she will have stimulation during her hospitalization.
  4. to a semiprivate room so she will have the opportunity to express her feelings about her illness.

2. The nurse teaches a group of mothers of toddlers how to prevent accidental poisoning. Which of the following suggestions should the nurse give regarding medications?

  1. Lock all medications in a cabinet.
  2. Child proof all the caps to medication bottles.
  3. Store medications on the highest shelf in a cupboard.
  4. Place medications in different containers.

3. While inserting a nasogastric tube, the nurse should use which of the following protective measures?

  1. Gloves, gown, goggles, and surgical cap.
  2. Sterile gloves, mask, plastic bags, and gown.
  3. Gloves, gown, mask, and goggles.
  4. Double gloves, goggles, mask, and surgical cap.

4. A 6-year-old boy is returned to his room following a tonsillectomy. He remains sleepy from the anesthesia but is easily awakened. The nurse should place the child in which of the following positions?

  1. Sims’.
  2. Side-lying.
  3. Supine.
  4. Prone.

5. A nursing team consists of an RN, an LPN/LVN, and a nursing assistant. The nurse should assign which of the following patients to the LPN/LVN?

  1. A 72-year-old patient with diabetes who requires a dressing change for a stasis ulcer.
  2. A 42-year-old patient with cancer of the bone complaining of pain.
  3. A 55-year-old patient with terminal cancer being transferred to hospice home care.
  4. A 23-year-old patient with a fracture of the right leg who asks to use the urinal.
Health Promotion And Maintenace

6. An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician’s office for a routine prenatal checkup at 34 weeks gestation. Abdominal palpation reveals the fetal position as right occipital anterior (ROA). At which of the following sites would the nurse expect to find the fetal heart tone?

  1. Below the umbilicus, on the mother’s left side.
  2. Below the umbilicus, on the mother’s right side.
  3. Above the umbilicus, on the mother’s left side.
  4. Above the umbilicus, on the mother’s right side.

7. The nurse in an outpatient clinic is supervising student nurses administering influenza vaccinations. The nurse should question the administration of the vaccine to which of the following clients?

  1. A 45-year-old male who is allergic to shellfish.
  2. A 60-year-old female who says she has a sore throat.
  3. A 66-year-old female who lives in a group home.
  4. A 70-year-old female with congestive heart failure.

8. The nurse performs a home visit on a client who delivered two days ago. The client states that she is bottle-feeding her infant. The nurse notes white, curd-like patches on the newborn’s oral mucous membranes. The nurse should take which of the following actions?

  1. Determine the baby’s blood glucose level.
  2. Suggest that the newborn’s formula be changed.
  3. Remind the caretaker not to let the infant sleep with the bottle.
  4. Explain that the newborn will need to receive some medication.

9. A two-month-old infant is brought to the pediatrician’s office for a well-baby visit. During the examination, congenital subluxation of the left hip is suspected. The nurse knows that symptoms of congenital hip dislocation include

  1. lengthening of the limb on the affected side.
  2. deformities of the foot and ankle.
  3. asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh folds.
  4. plantar flexion of the foot.

10. The nurse teaches a 20-year-old primigravida how to measure the frequency of uterine contractions. The nurse should explain to the patient that the frequency of uterine contractions is determined

  1. from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the next contraction.
  2. from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
  3. by the strength of the contraction at its peak.
  4. by the number of contractions that occur within a given period of time.
Psychosocial Integrity

11. An adolescent male being treated for depression arrives with his family at the Adolescent Day Treatment Center for an initial therapy meeting with the staff. The nurse explains that one of the goals of the family meeting is to encourage the adolescent to:

  1. trust the nurse who will solve his problem.
  2. learn to live with anxiety and tension.
  3. accept responsibility for his actions and choices.
  4. use the members of the therapeutic milieu to solve his problems.

12. A 23-year-old-woman comes to the emergency room stating that she had been raped. Which of the following statements BEST describes the nurse’s responsibility concerning written consent?

  1. The nurse should explain the procedure to the patient and ask her to sign the consent form.
  2. The nurse should verify that the consent form has been signed by the patient and that it is attached to her chart.
  3. The nurse should tell the physician that the patient agrees to have the examination.
  4. The nurse should verify that the patient or a family member has signed the consent form.

13. The nurse cares for an elderly patient with moderate hearing loss. The nurse should teach the patient’s family to use which of the following approaches when speaking to the patient?

  1. Raise your voice until the patient is able to hear you.
  2. Face the patient and speak quickly using a high voice.
  3. Face the patient and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice.
  4. Use facial expressions and speak as you would normally.

14. A 52-year-old man is admitted to a hospital after sustaining a severe head injury in an automobile accident. When the patient dies, the nurse observes the patient’s wife comforting other family members. Which of the following interpretations of this behavior is MOST justifiable?

  1. She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process.
  2. She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death.
  3. She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death.
  4. She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death.

15. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit becomes depressed. Which of the following evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?

  1. The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
  2. This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current treatment plan.
  3.  This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal behavior.
  4. The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant.
Physiological Integrity

16. A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). It would be MOST important for a nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory values in this patient?

  1. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
  2. BUN and creatinine.
  3. Platelet count and clotting time.
  4. Sodium and potassium.

17. A 22-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and weight loss. Physical examination reveals pallor and multiple bruises on his arms and legs. The results of the patients tests reveal acute lymphocytic leukemia and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses MOST accurately reflects his condition?

  1. Potential for injury.
  2. Self-care deficit.
  3. Potential for self-harm.
  4. Alteration in comfort.

18. To enhance the percutaneous absorption of nitroglycerine ointment, it would be MOST important for the nurse to select a site that is

  1. muscular.
  2. near the heart.
  3. non-hairy.
  4. over a bony prominence.

19. A man is admitted to the Telemetry Unit for evaluation of complaints of chest pain. Eight hours after admission, the patient goes into ventricular fibrillation. The physician defibrillates the patient. The nurse understands that the purpose of defibrillation is to:

  1. increase cardiac contractility and cardiac output.
  2. cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can recapture.
  3. reduce cardiac ischemia and acidosis.
  4. provide energy for depleted myocardial cells.

20. A patient is to receive 3,000 ml of 0.9% NaCl IV in 24 hours. The intravenous set delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the flow rate so that the patient receives how many drops of fluid per minute?

  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 31
  4. 42

21. A client is scheduled for a myelogram, and the nurse provides a list of instructions to the client regarding preparation for the procedure. Which instructions should the nurse place on the list? Select all that apply.

  1. Jewelry will need to be removed.
  2.  An informed consent will need to be signed.
  3. A trained x-ray technician performs the procedure.
  4. The procedure will take approximately 45 minutes.
  5. A liquid diet can be consumed on the day of the procedure.
  6. Solid food intake needs to be restricted only on the day of the procedure.

22. A client with a closed head injury is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing side effects related to this medication? Select all that apply.

  1. Ataxia
  2. Sedation
  3. Constipation
  4. Bleeding gums
  5. Hyperglycemia
  6. Decreased platelet count

23. A client with carcinoma of the lung develops the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a complication of the cancer. The nurse anticipates that which of the following may be prescribed? Select all that apply.

  1. Radiation
  2. Chemotherapy
  3. Increased fluid intake
  4. Serum sodium blood levels
  5. Decreased oral sodium intake
  6. Medication that is antagonistic to antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

24. A client with carcinoma of the lung develops the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a complication of the cancer. The nurse anticipates that which of the following may be prescribed? Select all that apply.

  1. Radiation
  2. Chemotherapy
  3. Increased fluid intake
  4. Serum sodium blood levels
  5. Decreased oral sodium intake
  6. Medication that is antagonistic to antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

25. The clinic nurse is assisting to perform a focused data collection process on a client who is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion. Which of the following would the nurse include for this type of data collection? Select all that apply.

  1. Auscultating lung sounds
  2. Obtaining the client’s temperature
  3. Checking the strength of peripheral pulses
  4. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations
  5. Performing a musculoskeletal and neurological examination
  6. Asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease
Answers and Rationales
1. The correct answer is B.
Question: What are the needs of the patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia and thrombocytopenia?
Needed Info: Lymphocytic leukemia, disease characterized by proliferation of immature WBCs. Immature cells unable to fight infection as competently as mature white cells. Treatment: chemotherapy, antibiotics, blood transfusions, bone marrow transplantation. Nursing responsibilities: private room, no raw fruits or vegs, small frequent meals, O2, good skin care.
  1. to a private room so she will not infect other patients and health care workers — poses little or no threat
  2.  to a private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers — CORRECT: protects patient from exogenous bacteria, risk for developing infection from others due to depressed WBC count, alters ability to fight infection
  3. to a semiprivate room so she will have stimulation during her hospitalization — should be placed in a room alone
  4.  to a semiprivate room so she will have the opportunity to express her feelings about her illness — ensure that patient is provided with opportunities to express feelings about illness
2. The correct answer is A.
Question: What is the BEST way to prevent accidental poisoning in children?
Strategy: Picture toddlers at play.
  1. Lock all medications in a cabinet — CORRECT: improper storage most common cause of poisoning; highest incidence in two-year-olds
  2. Child proof all the caps to medication bottles — children can open
  3. Store medications on the highest shelf in a cupboard — toddlers climb
  4. Place medications in different containers — keep in original container

3. The correct answer is C.
Question: What is the correct universal precaution?
Strategy: Think about each answer choice. How is each measure protecting the nurse?
Needed Info: Mask, eye protection, face shield protect mucous membrane exposure; used if activities are likely to generate splash or sprays. Gowns used if activities are likely to generate splashes or sprays.

  1. Gloves, gown, goggles, and surgical cap — surgical caps offer protection to hair but aren’t required.
  2. Sterile gloves, mask, plastic bags, and gown — plastic bags provide no direct protection and aren’t part of universal precautions
  3. Gloves, gown, mask, and goggles — CORRECT: must use universal precautions on ALL patients; prevent skin and mucous membrane exposure when contact with blood or other body fluids is anticipated
  4. Double gloves, goggles, mask, and surgical cap — surgical cap not required; unnecessary to double glove

4. The correct answer is B.
Question: What is the best position after tonsillectomy to help with drainage of oral secretions?
Strategy: Picture the patient as described.

  1. Sims’ — on side with top knee flexed and thigh drawn up to chest and lower knee less sharply flexed: used for vaginal or rectal examination
  2. Side-lying — CORRECT: most effective to facilitate drainage of secretions from the mouth and pharynx; reduces possibility of airway obstruction.
  3. Supine — increased risk for aspiration, would not facilitate drainage of oral secretions
  4. Prone — risk for airway obstruction and aspiration, unable to observe the child for signs of bleeding such as increased swallowing

5. The correct answer is A.
Question: Which patient is an appropriate assignment for the LPN/LVN?
Strategy: Think about the skill level involved in each patient’s care.
Needed Info: LPN/LVN: assists with implementation of care; performs procedures; differentiates normal from abnormal; cares for stable patients with predictable conditions; has knowledge of asepsis and dressing changes; administers medications (varies with educational background and state nurse practice act).

  1. A 72-year-old patient with diabetes who requires a dressing change for a stasis ulcer — CORRECT: stable patient with an expected outcome
  2. A 42-year-old patient with cancer of the bone complaining of pain — requires assessment; RN is the appropriate caregiver
  3. A 55-year-old patient with terminal cancer being transferred to hospice home care — requires nursing judgement; RN is the appropriate caregiver
  4. A 23-year-old patient with a fracture of the right leg who asks to use the urinal — standard unchanging procedure; assign to the nursing assistant

6. The answer is B.
Question: The fetus is ROA. Where should the nurse listen for the FHT?
Strategy: Picture the situation described. It may be helpful for you to draw this out so that you can imagine where the heartbeat would be found.
Needed Info: Describing fetal position: practice of defining position of baby relative to mother’s pelvis. The point of maximum intensity (PMI) of the fetus: point on the mother’s abdomen where the FHT is the loudest, usually over the fetal back. Divide the mother’s pelvis into 4 parts or quadrants: right and left anterior, which is the front, and right and left posterior, which is the back. Abbreviated: R and L for right and left, and A and P for anterior and posterior. The head, particularly the occiput, is the most common presenting part, and is abbreviated O. LOA is most common fetal position and FHT heard on left side. In a vertex presentation, FHT is heard below the umbilicus. In a breech presentation, FHT is heard above the umbilicus.

  1. Below the umbilicus, on the mother’s left side — found on right not left side
  2. Below the umbilicus, on the mother’s right side — CORRECT: occiput and back are pressing against right side of mother’s abdomen; FHT would be heard below umbilicus on right side
  3. Above the umbilicus, on the mother’s left side — found in breech presentation
  4. Above the umbilicus, on the mother’s right side — found in breech presentation

7. The correct answer is B.
Question: What is a contraindication to receiving flu vaccine?
Strategy: Think about what each answer choice means.
Needed Info: Influenza vaccine: given yearly, preferably Oct.-Nov.; recommended for people age 65 or older; people under 65 with heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, immuno-suppression, chronic care facility residents.

  1. A 45-year-old male who is allergic to shellfish — allergy to eggs is a contraindication
  2. A 60-year-old female who says she has a sore throat — CORRECT: vaccine deferred in presence of acute respiratory disease
  3. A 66-year-old female who lives in a group home — vaccine deferred only if patient has an active immunization
  4. A 70-year-old female with congestive heart failure — no contraindication

8. The correct answer is D.
Question: What is the treatment for thrush?
Strategy: Determine the outcome of each answer choice.
Needed Info: Thrush (oral candidiasis): white plaque on oral mucous membranes, gums, or tongue; treatment includes good handwashing, nystatin (Mycostatin).

  1. Determine the baby’s blood glucose level — thrush in newborns caused by poor handwashing or exposure to an infected vagina during birth
  2. Suggest that the newborn’s formula be changed — not related to thrush
  3. Remind the caretaker not to let the infant sleep with the bottle — not related to thrush
  4. Explain that the newborn will need to receive some medication — CORRECT: thrush most often treated with nystatin (Mycostatin)

9. The correct answer is C.
Question: What will you see with congenital hip dislocation?
Strategy: Form a mental image of the deformity.
Needed Info: Subluxation: most common type of congenital hip dislocation. Head of femur remains in contact with acetabulum but is partially displaced. Diagnosed in infant less than 4 weeks old S/S: unlevel gluteal folds, limited abduction of hip, shortened femur affected side, Ortolani’s sign (click). Treatment: abduction splint, hip spica cast, Bryant’s traction, open reduction.

  1. lengthening of the limb on the affected side — inaccurate
  2. deformities of the foot and ankle — inaccurate
  3. asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh folds — CORRECT: restricted movement on affected side
  4. plantar flexion of the foot — seen with clubfoot

10. The correct answer is D.
Question: How do you determine the frequency of uterine contractions?
Needed Info: There must be at least 3 contractions to establish frequency.

  1. from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the next contraction — not accurate
  2. from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction — defines duration
  3. by the strength of the contraction at its peak — describes intensity
  4. by the number of contractions that occur within a given period of time — CORRECT

11. The correct answer is C.
Question: What is the goal of family therapy?
Needed Info: Symptoms of depression: a low self-esteem, obsessive thoughts, regressive behavior, unkempt appearance, a lack of energy, weight loss, decreased concentration, withdrawn behavior.

  1. trust the nurse who will solve his problem — not realistic
  2. learn to live with anxiety and tension — minimizes concerns
  3. accept responsibility for his actions and choices — CORRECT
  4. use the members of the therapeutic milieu to solve his problems — must do it himself

12. The correct answer is B.
Question: What is your responsibility concerning informed consent?
Needed Info: Physician’s responsibility to obtain informed consent.

  1. The nurse should explain the procedure to the patient and ask her to sign the consent form — Physician should get patient to sign consent
  2. The nurse should verify that the consent form has been signed by the patient and that it is attached to her chart — CORRECT
  3. The nurse should tell the physician that the patient agrees to have the examination — Physician should explain procedure and get consent form signed
  4.  The nurse should verify that the patient or a family member has signed the consent form — must be signed by patient unless unable to do

13. The correct answer is C.
Question: What should you do to communicate with a person with a moderate hearing loss?
Needed Info: Presbycusis: age-related hearing loss due to inner ear changes. Decreased ability to hear high sounds.

  1. Raise your voice until the patient is able to hear you — would result in high tones patient unable to hear
  2. Face the patient and speak quickly using a high voice — usually unable to hear high tones
  3. Face the patient and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice — CORRECT: also decrease background noise; speak at a slow pace, use nonverbal cues
  4. Use facial expressions and speak as you would normally — nonverbal cues help, but need low tones

14. The correct answer is C.
Question: What is the reason for the wife’s behavior?
Needed Info: Stages of grief: 1) shock and disbelief, 2) awareness of pain and loss, 3) restitution. Acute period: 4-8 weeks, usual resolution: 1 year.

  1. She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process — takes one year
  2. She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death — not accurate; second stage: crying, regression
  3. She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death — CORRECT: denial first stage; inability to comprehend reality of situation
  4. She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death — too soon

15. The correct answer is C.
Question: Is the depression normal, or something to be concerned about?

  1. The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium — not accurate
  2. This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current treatment plan — does not address safety needs
  3. This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal behavior — CORRECT: delay of 1-3 weeks before med benefits seen
  4. The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant — normal response

16. The correct answer is B.
Question: Which lab values should you monitor for a patient receiving Gentamicin?
Needed Info: Gentamicin: broad spectrum antibiotic. Side effects: neuromuscular blockage, ototoxic to eighth cranial nerve (tinnitus, vertigo, ataxia, nystagmus, hearing loss), nephrotoxic. Nursing responsibilities: monitor renal function, force fluids, monitor hearing acuity. Draw blood for peak levels 1 hr. after IM and 30 min – 1 hr. after IV infusion, draw blood for trough just before next dose.

  1. Hemoglobin and hematocrit — can cause anemia; less common
  2. BUN and creatinine — CORRECT: nephrotoxic; will see proteinuria, oliguria, hematuria, thirst, increased BUN, decreased creatine clearance
  3. Platelet count and clotting time — do not usually change
  4. Sodium and potassium — hypokalemia infrequent problem

17. The correct answer is A.
Question: What nursing diagnosis is seen with acute lymphocytic leukemia and thromocytopenia?
Needed Info: Thromocytopenia: decreased platelet count increases the patient’s risk for injury, normal count: 200,000-400,000 per mm3. Leukemia: group of malignant disorders involving overproduction of immature leukocytes in bone marrow. This shuts down normal bone marrow production of erythrocytes, platelets, normal leukocytes. Causes anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia leading to infection and hemorrhage. Symptoms: pallor of nail beds and conjunctiva, petechiae (small hemorrhagic spot on skin), tachycardia, dyspnea, weight loss, fatigue. Treatment: chemotherapy, antibiotics, blood transfusions, bone marrow transplantation. Nursing responsibilities: private room, no raw fruits or vegs, small frequent meals, O2, good skin care.

  1. Potential for injury — CORRECT: low platelet increases risk of bleeding from even minor injuries. Safety measures: shave with an electric razor, use soft tooth brush, avoid SQ or IM meds and invasive procedures (urinary drainage catheter or a nasogastric tube), side-rails up, remove sharp objects, frequently assess for signs of bleeding, bruising, hemorrhage.
  2. Self-care deficit — may feel weak, doesn’t address condition
  3. Potential for self-harm — implies risk for purposeful self-injury, not given any info, assumption
  4. Alteration in comfort — patient is not comfortable, and comfort measures would address problem

18. The correct answer is C.
Question: What is the best site for nitroglycerine ointment?
Strategy: Think about each site.
Needed Info: Nitroglycerine: used in treatment of angina pectoris to reduce ischemia and relieve pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption; dilates veins and arteries. Side effects: throbbing headache, flushing, hypotension, tachycardia. Nursing responsibilities: teach appropriate administration, storage, expected pain relief, side effects. Ointment applied to skin; sites rotated to avoid skin irritaion. Prolonged effect up to 24 hours.

  1. muscular — not most important
  2. near the heart — not most important
  3. non-hairy — CORRECT: skin site free of hair will increase absorption; avoid distal part of extremities due to less than maximal absorption
  4. over a bony prominence — most important is that the site be non-hairy

19. The correct answer is B.
Question: Why is a patient defibrillated?
Strategy: Think about each answer choice.
Needed Info: Defibrillation: produces asystole of heart to provide opportunity for natural pacemaker (SA node) to resume as pacer of heart activity.

  1. increase cardiac contractility and cardiac output — inaccurate
  2. cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can recapture — CORRECT: allows SA node to resume as pacer of heart activity
  3. reduce cardiac ischemia and acidosis — inaccurate
  4. provide energy for depleted myocardial cells — inaccurate

20. The correct answer is C.
Question: How should you regulate the IV flow rate?
Strategy: Use formula and avoid making math errors.
Needed Info: total volume x the drop factor divided by the total time in minutes.

  1. 21 — inaccurate
  2.  28 — inaccurate
  3. 31 — CORRECT: 3,000 x 15 divided by 24 x 60
  4. 42 — inaccurate

21. The correct answer are A, B, and D.
Client preparation for a myelogram includes instructing the client to restrict food and fluids for 4 to 8 hours before the procedure. The client is told that the procedure takes about 45 minutes. An informed consent is required because the procedure is invasive and is therefore performed by the health care provider. The client will need to remove jewelry and metal objects from the chest area. The client is also told that pretest medications may be prescribed for relaxation.

22.The correct answer are C, D, E, and F.
Dilantin causes blood dyscrasias, such as decreased platelet counts and decreased white blood cell counts; it contributes to constipation as well. Gingival hyperplasia can occur, causing gums to bleed easily, and blood glucose levels can elevate when taking phenytoin. Sedation is a side effect of barbiturates, not phenytoin. Ataxia is a side effect of benzodiazepines.

23.The correct answer are A, B, D, and F.
Cancer is a common cause of SIADH. In clients with SIADH, excessive amounts of water are reabsorbed by the kidney and put into the systemic circulation. The increased water causes hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium levels) and some degree of fluid retention. SIADH is managed by treating the condition and its cause, and treatment usually includes fluid restriction, increased sodium intake, and a medication with a mechanism of action that is antagonistic to ADH. Sodium levels are monitored closely, because hypernatremia can suddenly develop as a result of treatment. The immediate institution of appropriate cancer therapy (usually either radiation or chemotherapy) can cause tumor regression so that ADH
synthesis and release processes return to normal.

24. The correct answer are A, B, D and F.
Cancer is a common cause of SIADH. In clients with SIADH, excessive amounts of water are reabsorbed by the kidney and put into the systemic circulation. The increased water causes hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium levels) and some degree of fluid retention. SIADH is managed by treating the condition and its cause, and treatment usually includes fluid restriction, increased sodium intake, and a medication with a mechanism of action that is antagonistic to ADH. Sodium levels are monitored closely, because hypernatremia can suddenly develop as a result of treatment. The immediate institution of appropriate cancer therapy (usually either radiation or chemotherapy) can cause tumor regression so that ADH synthesis and release processes return to normal.

25.The correct answer are A, B, and D.
A focused data collection process focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client’s complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete data collection includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Checking the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to this client’s complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client’s complaints. However, strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete data collection. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete assessment.

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