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NCLEX Practice Exam for Medical Surgical Nursing 4 (PM)
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Question 1
The nurse is reviewing the report of a patient’s routine urinalysis. Which of the following values should the nurse consider abnormal?
A
Absence of protein
B
Absence of glucose
C
Urine pH of 3
D
Specific gravity of 1.002
Question 1 Explanation:
Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3 is abnormal and may indicate such conditions as renal tuberculosis, pyrexia, phenylketonuria, alkaptonuria, and acidosis. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.032, making the patient’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals.
Question 2
Many men who suffer spinal injuries continue to be sexually active. The teaching plan for a man with a spinal cord injury should include sexually concerns. Which of the following injuries would most likely prevent erection and ejaculation?
A
C7
B
C5
C
T4
D
S4
Question 2 Explanation:
Men with spinal cord injury should be taught that the higher the level of the lesion, the better their sexual function will be. The sacral region is the lowest area on the spinal column and injury to this area will cause more erectile dysfunction.
Question 3
Gary Jordan suffered a cerebrovascular accident that left her unable to comprehend speech and unable to speak. This type of aphasia is known as:
A
Global aphasia
B
Expressive aphasia
C
Conduction aphasia
D
Receptive aphasia
Question 3 Explanation:
Global aphasia occurs when all language functions are affected. Receptive aphasia, also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, affects the ability to comprehend written or spoken words. Expressive aphasia, also known as Broca’s aphasia, affected the patient’s ability to form language and express thoughts. Conduction aphasia refers to abnormalities in speech repetition.
Question 4
Murmurs that indicate heart disease are often accompanied by other symptoms such as:
A
Subcutaneous emphysema
B
Thoracic petechiae
C
Periorbital edema
D
Dyspnea on exertion.
Question 4 Explanation:
A murmur that indicates heart disease is often accompanied by dyspnea on exertion, which is a hallmark of heart failure. Other indicators are tachycardia, syncope, and chest pain. Subcutaneous emphysema, thoracic petechiae, and perior-bital edema aren’t associated with murmurs and heart disease.
Question 5
Kelly Smith complains that her headaches are occurring more frequently despite medications. Patients with a history of headaches should be taught to avoid:
A
Citrus fruits.
B
Freshly prepared meats.
C
Skim milk
D
Chocolate
Question 5 Explanation:
Patients with a history of headaches, especially migraines, should be taught to keep a food diary to identify potential food triggers. Typical headache triggers include alcohol, aged cheeses, processed meats, and chocolate and caffeine-containing products.
Question 6
The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with cardiomyopathy is:
A
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility.
B
Anxiety related to risk of declining health status
C
Ineffective individual coping related to fear of debilitating illness
D
Fluid volume excess related to altered compensatory mechanisms.
Question 6 Explanation:
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility is the greatest threat to the survival of a patient with cardiomyopathy. The other options can be addressed once cardiac output and myocardial contractility have been restored.
Question 7
Tiffany Black is diagnosed with type A hepatitis. What special precautions should the nurse take when caring for this patient?
A
Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan.
B
Put on a mask and gown before entering the patient’s room.
C
Use caution when bringing food to the patient.
D
Prevent the droplet spread of the organism
Question 7 Explanation:
The nurse should wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan because the type A hepatitis virus occurs in stools. It may also occur in blood, nasotracheal secretions, and urine. Type A hepatitis isn’t transmitted through the air by way of droplets. Special precautions aren’t needed when feeding the patient, but disposable utensils should be used.
Question 8
Immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture, the patient usually complains of:
A
Explosive headache
B
Seizures
C
Hemiparesis
D
Photophobia
Question 8 Explanation:
An explosive headache or “the worst headache I’ve ever had” is typically the first presenting symptom of a bleeding cerebral aneurysm. Photophobia, seizures, and hemiparesis may occur later.
Question 9
After undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy, a patient is retuned to the room with continuous bladder irrigation in place. One day later, the patient reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?
A
Increase the I.V. flow rate
B
Administer meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed
C
Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage
D
Notify the doctor immediately
Question 9 Explanation:
Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should ensure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren’t the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic such as meperidine as prescribed. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worse the pain. Notifying the doctor isn’t necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the prescribed medication.
Question 10
The first day after, surgery the nurse finds no measurable fecal drainage from a patient’s colostomy stoma. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A
Obtain an order to irrigate the stoma.
B
Place the patient on bed rest and call the doctor.
C
Continue the current plan of care.
D
Call the doctor immediately.
Question 10 Explanation:
The colostomy may not function for 2 days or more (48 to 72 hours) after surgery. Therefore, the normal plan of care can be followed. Since no fecal drainage is expected for 48 to 72 hours after a colostomy (only mucous and serosanguineous), the doctor doesn’t have to be notified and the stoma shouldn’t be irrigated at this time.
Question 11
A patient with thrombophlebitis reached her expected outcomes of care. Her affected leg appears pink and warm. Her pedal pulse is palpable and there is no edema present. Which step in the nursing process is described above?
A
Implementation
B
Planning
C
Evaluation
D
Analysis
Question 11 Explanation:
Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the treatment plan by determining if the patient has met the expected treatment outcome. Planning refers to designing a plan of action that will help the nurse deliver quality patient care. Implementation refers to all of the nursing interventions directed toward solving the patient’s nursing problems. Analysis is the process of identifying the patient’s nursing problems.
Question 12
Ivy Hopkins, age 25, suffered a cervical fracture requiring immobilization with halo traction. When caring for the patient in halo traction, the nurse must:
A
Encourage the patient to use a pillow under the ring.
B
Remove the brace once a day to allow the patient to rest.
C
Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest for quick removal if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary.
D
Remove the brace so that the patient can shower.
Question 12 Explanation:
The nurse must have a wrench taped on the vest at all times for quick halo removal in emergent situations. The brace isn’t to be removed for any other reason until the cervical fracture is healed. Placing a pillow under the patient’s head may alter the stability of the brace.
Question 13
While assessing a patient who complained of lower abdominal pressure, the nurse notes a firm mass extending above the symphysis pubis. The nurse suspects:
A
A distended bladder
B
An enlarged kidney
C
Renal calculi
D
A urinary tract infection
Question 13 Explanation:
The bladder isn’t usually palpable unless it is distended. The feeling of pressure is usually relieved with urination. Reduced bladder tone due to general anesthesia is a common postoperative complication that causes difficulty in voiding. A urinary tract infection and renal calculi aren’t palpable. The kidneys aren’t palpable above the symphysis pubis.
Question 14
A patient with metabolic acidosis has a preexisting problem with the kidneys. Which other organ helps regulate blood pH?
A
Lungs
B
Liver
C
Pancreas
D
heart
Question 14 Explanation:
The respiratory and renal systems act as compensatory mechanisms to counteract-base imbalances. The lungs alter the carbon dioxide levels in the blood by increasing or decreasing the rate and depth of respirations, thereby increasing or decreasing carbon dioxide elimination. The liver, pancreas, and heart play no part in compensating for acid-base imbalances.
Question 15
The nurse is performing her admission assessment of a patient. When grading arterial pulses, a 1+ pulse indicates:
A
Above normal perfusion.
B
Absent perfusion.
C
Normal perfusion.
D
Diminished perfusion.
Question 15 Explanation:
A 1+ pulse indicates weak pulses and is associated with diminished perfusion. A 4+ is bounding perfusion, a 3+ is increased perfusion, a 2+ is normal perfusion, and 0 is absent perfusion.
Question 16
A patient with suspected renal insufficiency is scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic work-up. After the nurse explains the diagnostic tests, the patient asks which part of the kidney “does the work.” Which answer is correct?
A
The tubular system
B
The glomerulus
C
Bowman’s capsule
D
The nephron
Question 16 Explanation:
The nephron is the kidney’s functioning unit. The glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, and tubular system are components of the nephron.
Question 17
Cathy Bates, age 36, is a homemaker who frequently forgets to take her carbamazepine (Tegretol). As a result, she has been experiencing seizures. How can the nurse best help the patient remember to take her medication?
A
Tell her take her medication at bedtime.
B
Tell her to buy an alarm watch to remind her.
C
Explain that she should take her medication with breakfast.
D
Instruct her to take her medication after one of her favorite television shows.
Question 17 Explanation:
Tegretol should be taken with food to minimize GI distress. Taking it at meals will also establish a regular routine, which should help compliance.
Question 18
The nurse is teaching family members of a patient with a concussion about the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would she cite as an early sign of increased ICP?
A
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
B
Decreased systolic blood pressure
C
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
D
Headache and vomiting
Question 18 Explanation:
Headache and projectile vomiting are early signs of increased ICP. Decreased systolic blood pressure, unconsciousness, and dilated pupils that don’t reac to light are considered late signs.
Question 19
If a patient’s GI tract is functioning but he’s unable to take foods by mouth, the preferred method of feeding is:
A
Enteral nutrition
B
Peripheral parenteral nutrition
C
Total parenteral nutrition
D
Oral liquid supplements
Question 19 Explanation:
If the patient’s GI tract is functioning, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube is the preferred method. Peripheral and total parenteral nutrition places the patient at risk for infection. If the patient is unable to consume foods by mouth, oral liquid supplements are contraindicated.
Question 20
The nurse explains to the patient who has an abdominal perineal resection that an indwelling urinary catheter must be kept in place for several days afterward because:
A
It minimizes the risk of wound contamination by the urine
B
It determines whether the surgery caused bladder trauma
C
It prevents urinary tract infection following surgery
D
It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal wound
Question 20 Explanation:
An indwelling urinary catheter is kept in place several days after this surgery to prevent urine retention that could place pressure on the perineal wound. An indwelling urinary catheter may be a source of postoperative urinary tract infection. Urine won’t contaminate the wound. An indwelling urinary catheter won’t necessarily show bladder
Question 21
Which assessment finding would indicate an extracellular fluid volume deficit?
A
An orthostatic blood pressure change
B
Bradycardia
C
Pitting edema
D
A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg
Question 21 Explanation:
An orthostatic blood pressure indicates an extracellular fluid volume deficit. (The extracellular compartment consists of both the intravascular compartment and interstitial space.) A fluid volume deficit within the intravascular compartment would cause tachycardia, not bradycardia or orthostatic blood pressure change. A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is in the high normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Pitting edema indicates fluid volume overload.
Question 22
In early symptom associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) includes:
A
Spontaneous fractures
B
Fatigue while talking
C
Numbness of the hands and feet
D
Change in mental status
Question 22 Explanation:
Early symptoms of ALS include fatigue while talking, dysphagia, and weakness of the hands and arms. ALS doesn’t cause a change in mental status, paresthesia, or fractures.
Question 23
Which of the following is a cause of embolic brain injury?
A
Persistent hypertension
B
Atrial fibrillation
C
Skull fracture
D
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Question 23 Explanation:
An embolic injury, caused by a traveling clot, may result from atrial fibrillation. Blood may pool in the fibrillating atrium and be released to travel up the cerebral artery to the brain. Persistent hypertension may place the patient at risk for a thrombotic injury to the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage and skull fractures aren’t associated with emboli.
Question 24
During a shock state, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system exerts which of the following effects on renal function?
A
Decreased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
B
Decreased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
C
Increased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
D
Increased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
Question 24 Explanation:
As a response to shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system alters renal function by decreasing urine output and increasing reabsorption of sodium and water. Reduced renal perfusion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an effort to conserve circulating volume.
Question 25
An elderly patient may have sustained a basilar skull fracture after slipping and falling on an icy sidewalk. The nurse knows that basilar skull factures:
A
Are always surgically repaired.
B
Have no characteristic findings.
C
Are the least significant type of skull fracture.
D
May have cause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the nose or ears.
Question 25 Explanation:
A basilar skull fracture carries the risk of complications of dural tear, causing CSF leakage and damage to cranial nerves I, II, VII, and VIII. Classic findings in this type of fracture may include otorrhea, rhinorrhea, Battle’s signs, and raccoon eyes. Surgical treatment isn’t always required.
Question 26
Which pregnancy-related physiologic change would place the patient with a history of cardiac disease at the greatest risk of developing severe cardiac problems?
A
Decreased cardiac output
B
Decrease heart rate
C
Increased blood pressure
D
Increased plasma volume
Question 26 Explanation:
Pregnancy increase plasma volume and expands the uterine vascular bed, possibly increasing both the heart rate and cardiac output. These changes may cause cardiac stress, especially during the second trimester. Blood pressure during early pregnancy may decrease, but it gradually returns to prepregnancy levels.
Question 27
The nurse is assessing a patient and notes a Brudzinski’s sign and Kernig’s sign. These are two classic signs of which of the following disorders?
A
Meningitis
B
Seizure disorder
C
Parkinson’s disease
D
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
Question 27 Explanation:
A positive response to one or both tests indicates meningeal irritation that is present with meningitis. Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs don’t occur in CVA, seizure disorder, or Parkinson’s disease.
Question 28
Which assessment finding indicates dehydration?
A
A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated
B
Neck vein distention
C
Rapid filling of hand veins
D
Tenting of chest skin when pinched
Question 28 Explanation:
Tenting of chest skin when pinched indicates decreased skin elasticity due to dehydration. Hand veins fill slowly with dehydration, not rapidly. A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated and neck vein distention indicate fluid overload, not dehydration.
Question 29
Which nursing action is appropriate to prevent infection when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling urinary catheter?
A
Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and obtain urine
B
Wear sterile gloves when obtaining urine
C
Open the drainage bag and pour out some urine
D
Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe and needle
Question 29 Explanation:
To obtain urine properly, the nurse should aspirate it from a port, using a sterile syringe after cleaning the port. Opening a closed urine drainage system increases the risk of urinary tract infection. Standard precautions specify the use of gloves during contract with body fluids; however, sterile gloves aren’t necessary.
Question 30
Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?
A
Alkaline
B
Hypotonic
C
Hypertonic
D
Isotonic
Question 30 Explanation:
A hypertonic solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma because the hypertonic solution has a greater osmotic pressure than the cells. A hypotonic solution has a lower osmotic pressure than that of the cells. It causes fluid to shift into the cells, possibly resulting in rupture. An isotonic solution, which has the same osmotic pressure as the cells, wouldn’t cause any shift. A solution’s alkalinity is related to the hydrogen ion concentration, not its osmotic effect.
Question 31
Which nursing intervention would most likely lead to a hypo-osmolar state?
A
Administering tap water enema until the return is clear
B
Weighing the patient daily
C
Performing nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution
D
Encouraging the patient with excessive perspiration to dink broth
Question 31 Explanation:
Administering a tap water enema until return is clear would most likely contribute to a hypo-osmolar state. Because tap water is hypotonic, it would be absorbed by the body, diluting the body fluid concentration and lowering osmolarity. Weighing the patient is the easiest, most accurate method to determine fluid changes. Therefore, it helps identify rather than contribute to fluid imbalance. Nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution wouldn’t cause a shift in fluid balance. Drinking broth wouldn’t contribute to a hypo-osmolar state because it doesn’t replace sodium and water lost through excessive perspiration.
Question 32
Jessie James is diagnosed with retinal detachment. Which intervention is the most important for this patient?
A
Patching both of his eyes
B
Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed rest
C
Referring him to an ophthalmologist
D
Preparing him for surgery
Question 32 Explanation:
Immediate bed rest is necessary to prevent further injury. Both eyes should be patched to avoid consensual eye movement and the patient should receive early referral to an ophthalmologist should treat the condition immediately. Retinal reattachment can be accomplished by surgery only. If the macula is detached or threatened, surgery is urgent; prolonged detachment of the macula results in permanent loss of central vision.
Question 33
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The doctor tentatively diagnoses right ureter-olithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this patient’s care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A
Altered urinary elimination
B
Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
C
Pain
D
Risk of infection
Question 33 Explanation:
Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the patient can’t rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of pain takes highest priority. Risk for infection and altered urinary elimination are appropriate once the patient’s pain is controlled. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements isn’t appropriate at this time.
Question 34
Particles move from an area of greater osmelarity to one of lesser osmolarity through:
A
Filtration
B
Active transport
C
Osmosis
D
Diffusion
Question 34 Explanation:
Particles move from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity through diffusion. Active transport is the movement of particles though energy expenditure from other sources such as enzymes. Osmosis is the movement of a pure solvent through a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity until equalization occurs. The membrane is impermeable to the solute but permeable to the solvent. Filtration is the process by which fluid is forced through a membrane by a difference in pressure; small molecules pass through, but large ones don’t.
Question 35
Although Ms. Priestly has a spinal cord injury, she can still have sexual intercourse. Discharge teaching should make her aware that:
A
She can still get pregnant.
B
She must remove indwelling urinary catheter prior to intercourse.
C
She can no longer achieve orgasm.
D
Positioning may be awkward.
Question 35 Explanation:
Women with spinal cord injuries who were sexually active may continue having sexual intercourse and must be reminded that they can still become pregnant. She may be fully capable of achieving orgasm. An indwelling urinary catheter may be left in place during sexual intercourse. Positioning will need to be adjusted to fit the patient’s needs.
Question 36
Richard Barnes was diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. What response by the patient indicates that he understands the precautions necessary with this diagnosis?
A
“The doctor is a good friend of mine and won’t keep me in isolation.”
B
“Thank goodness, I’ll only be in isolation for 24 hours.”
C
“I’m so depressed because I can’t have any visitors for a week.”
D
“The nurse told me that my urine and stool are also sources of meningitis bacteria.”
Question 36 Explanation:
Patient with pneumococcal meningitis require respiratory isolation for the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated.
Question 37
The nurse should instruct the patient with Parkinson’s disease to avoid which of the following?
A
Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer day
B
Sitting on the deck on a cool summer evening
C
Walking to the car on a cold winter day
D
Walking in an indoor shopping mall
Question 37 Explanation:
The patient with Parkinson’s disease may be hypersensitive to heat, which increases the risk of hyperthermia, and he should be instructed to avoid sun exposure during hot weather.
Question 38
Gregg Lohan, age 75, is admitted to the medical-surgical floor with weakness and left-sided chest pain. The symptoms have been present for several weeks after a viral illness. Which assessment finding is most symptomatic of pericarditis?
A
Pain unrelieved by a change in position
B
Third heart sound (S3)
C
Pericardial friction rub
D
Bilateral crackles auscultated at the lung bases
Question 38 Explanation:
A pericardial friction rub may be present with the pericardial effusion of pericarditis. The lungs are typically clear when auscultated. Sitting up and leaning forward often relieves pericarditis pain. An S3 indicates left-sided heart failure and isn’t usually present with pericarditis.
Question 39
Which of the following types of drugs might be given to control increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A
Barbiturates
B
Anticholinergics
C
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D
Histamine receptor blockers
Question 39 Explanation:
Barbiturates may be used to induce a coma in a patient with increased ICP. This decreases cortical activity and cerebral metabolism, reduces cerebral blood volume, decreases cerebral edema, and reduces the brain’s need for glucose and oxygen. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used to decrease ocular pressure or to decrease the serum pH in a patient with metabolic alkalosis. Anticholinergics have many uses including reducing GI spasms. Histamine receptor blockers are used to decrease stomach acidity.
Question 40
The nurse is interviewing a slightly overweight 43-year-old man with mild emphysema and borderline hypertension. He admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day. When developing a teaching plan, which of the following should receive highest priority to help decrease respiratory complications?
A
Decreasing caffeine intake
B
Smoking cessation
C
Decreasing salt intake
D
Weight reduction
Question 40 Explanation:
Smoking should receive highest priority when trying to reduce risk factors for with respiratory complications. Losing weight and decreasing salt and caffeine intake can help to decrease risk factors for hypertension.
Question 41
The nurse considers the patient anuric if the patient;
A
Voids during the nighttime hours
B
Has pain and burning on urination
C
Has a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours
D
Has a urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours
Question 41 Explanation:
Anuria refers to a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours. The baseline for urine output and renal function is 30 ml of urine per hour. A urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours is within normal limits. Voiding at night is called nocturia. Pain and burning on urination is called dysuria.
Question 42
A patient is admitted to the hospital for a brain biopsy. The nurse knows that the most common type of primary brain tumor is:
A
Glioma
B
Meningioma
C
Hemangioblastoma
D
Angioma
Question 42 Explanation:
Gliomas account for approximately 45% of all brain tumors. Meningiomas are the second most common, with 15%. Angiomas and hemangioblastomas are types of cerebral vascular tumors that account for 3% of brain tumors.
Question 43
What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
A
15:2
B
12:2
C
15:1
D
12:1
Question 43 Explanation:
The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs CPR is 15:2
Question 44
Dr. Bruce Owen, a chemist, sustained a chemical burn to one eye. Which intervention takes priority for a patient with a chemical burn of the eye?
A
Administer a cycloplegic agent to reduce ciliary spasm.
B
Patch the affected eye and call the ophthalmologist.
C
Administer antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection
D
Immediately instill a tropical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution.
Question 44 Explanation:
A chemical burn to the eye requires immediate instillation of a topical anesthetic followed by irrigation with copious amounts of saline solution. Irrigation should be done for 5 to 10 minutes, and then the pH of the eye should be checked. Irrigation should be continued until the pH of the eye is restored to neutral (pH 7.0): Double eversion of the eyelids should be performed to look for and remove ciliary spasm, and an antibiotic ointment can be administered to reduce the risk of infection. Then the eye should be patched. Parenteral narcotic analgesia is often required for pain relief. An ophthalmologist should also be consulted.
Question 45
When caring for a patient with esophageal varices, the nurse knows that bleeding in this disorder usually stems from:
A
Pulmonary hypertension
B
Portal hypertension
C
Peptic ulcers
D
Esophageal perforation
Question 45 Explanation:
Increased pressure within the portal veins causes them to bulge, leading to rupture and bleeding into the lower esophagus. Bleeding associated with esophageal varices doesn’t stem from esophageal perforation, pulmonary hypertension, or peptic ulcers.
Question 46
When assessing a patient for fluid and electrolyte balance, the nurse is aware that the organs most important in maintaining this balance are the:
A
Pituitary gland and pancreas
B
Brain stem and heart.
C
Lungs and kidneys.
D
Liver and gallbladder.
Question 46 Explanation:
The lungs and kidneys are the body’s regulators of homeostasis. The lungs are responsible for removing fluid and carbon dioxide; the kidneys maintain a balance of fluid and electrolytes. The other organs play secondary roles in maintaining homeostasis.
Question 47
The nurse asks a patient’s husband if he understands why his wife is receiving nimodipine (Nimotop), since she suffered a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which response by the husband indicates that he understands the drug’s use?
A
“Nimodipine replaces calcium.”
B
“Nimodipine promotes growth of blood vessels in the brain.”
C
“Nimodipine reduces the brain’s demand for oxygen.”
D
“Nimodipine reduces vasospasm in the brain.”
Question 47 Explanation:
Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that acts on cerebral blood vessels to reduce vasospasm. The drug doesn’t increase the amount of calcium, affect cerebral vasculature growth, or reduce cerebral oxygen demand.
Question 48
Discharge instructions for a patient who has been operated on for colorectal cancer include irrigating the colostomy. The nurse knows her teaching is effective when the patient states he’ll contact the doctor if:
A
He has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma
B
He’s unable to complete the procedure in 1 hour
C
He experiences abdominal cramping while the irrigant is infusing
D
He expels flatus while the return is running out
Question 48 Explanation:
The patient should notify the doctor if he has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma. Difficulty with insertion may indicate stenosis of the bowel. Abdominal cramping and expulsion of flatus may normally occur with irrigation. The procedure will often take an hour to complete.
Question 49
James King is admitted to the hospital with right-side-heart failure. When assessing him for jugular vein distention, the nurse should position him:
A
Lying on his back with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
B
Lying on his side with the head of the bed flat.
C
Flat on his back.
D
Sitting upright.
Question 49 Explanation:
Assessing jugular vein distention should be done when the patient is in semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees). If the patient lies flat, the veins will be more distended; if he sits upright, the veins will be flat.
Question 50
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain originating in the lumbar region and radiating around the side and toward the bladder. The patient also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The doctor tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?
A
Urethra
B
Ureter
C
Kidney
D
Urethra
Question 50 Explanation:
Renal calculi most commonly from in the kidney. They may remain there or become lodged anywhere along the urinary tract. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.
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NCLEX Practice Exam for Medical Surgical Nursing 4 (EM)
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Question 1
What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
A
12:2
B
15:2
C
15:1
D
12:1
Question 1 Explanation:
The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs CPR is 15:2
Question 2
The nurse asks a patient’s husband if he understands why his wife is receiving nimodipine (Nimotop), since she suffered a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which response by the husband indicates that he understands the drug’s use?
A
“Nimodipine promotes growth of blood vessels in the brain.”
B
“Nimodipine reduces vasospasm in the brain.”
C
“Nimodipine reduces the brain’s demand for oxygen.”
D
“Nimodipine replaces calcium.”
Question 2 Explanation:
Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that acts on cerebral blood vessels to reduce vasospasm. The drug doesn’t increase the amount of calcium, affect cerebral vasculature growth, or reduce cerebral oxygen demand.
Question 3
An elderly patient may have sustained a basilar skull fracture after slipping and falling on an icy sidewalk. The nurse knows that basilar skull factures:
A
May have cause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the nose or ears.
B
Have no characteristic findings.
C
Are always surgically repaired.
D
Are the least significant type of skull fracture.
Question 3 Explanation:
A basilar skull fracture carries the risk of complications of dural tear, causing CSF leakage and damage to cranial nerves I, II, VII, and VIII. Classic findings in this type of fracture may include otorrhea, rhinorrhea, Battle’s signs, and raccoon eyes. Surgical treatment isn’t always required.
Question 4
Discharge instructions for a patient who has been operated on for colorectal cancer include irrigating the colostomy. The nurse knows her teaching is effective when the patient states he’ll contact the doctor if:
A
He has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma
B
He expels flatus while the return is running out
C
He’s unable to complete the procedure in 1 hour
D
He experiences abdominal cramping while the irrigant is infusing
Question 4 Explanation:
The patient should notify the doctor if he has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma. Difficulty with insertion may indicate stenosis of the bowel. Abdominal cramping and expulsion of flatus may normally occur with irrigation. The procedure will often take an hour to complete.
Question 5
The nurse considers the patient anuric if the patient;
A
Has pain and burning on urination
B
Has a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours
C
Has a urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours
D
Voids during the nighttime hours
Question 5 Explanation:
Anuria refers to a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours. The baseline for urine output and renal function is 30 ml of urine per hour. A urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours is within normal limits. Voiding at night is called nocturia. Pain and burning on urination is called dysuria.
Question 6
While assessing a patient who complained of lower abdominal pressure, the nurse notes a firm mass extending above the symphysis pubis. The nurse suspects:
A
Renal calculi
B
An enlarged kidney
C
A distended bladder
D
A urinary tract infection
Question 6 Explanation:
The bladder isn’t usually palpable unless it is distended. The feeling of pressure is usually relieved with urination. Reduced bladder tone due to general anesthesia is a common postoperative complication that causes difficulty in voiding. A urinary tract infection and renal calculi aren’t palpable. The kidneys aren’t palpable above the symphysis pubis.
Question 7
The nurse should instruct the patient with Parkinson’s disease to avoid which of the following?
A
Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer day
B
Sitting on the deck on a cool summer evening
C
Walking in an indoor shopping mall
D
Walking to the car on a cold winter day
Question 7 Explanation:
The patient with Parkinson’s disease may be hypersensitive to heat, which increases the risk of hyperthermia, and he should be instructed to avoid sun exposure during hot weather.
Question 8
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain originating in the lumbar region and radiating around the side and toward the bladder. The patient also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The doctor tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?
A
Kidney
B
Ureter
C
Urethra
D
Urethra
Question 8 Explanation:
Renal calculi most commonly from in the kidney. They may remain there or become lodged anywhere along the urinary tract. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.
Question 9
A patient with thrombophlebitis reached her expected outcomes of care. Her affected leg appears pink and warm. Her pedal pulse is palpable and there is no edema present. Which step in the nursing process is described above?
A
Implementation
B
Analysis
C
Evaluation
D
Planning
Question 9 Explanation:
Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the treatment plan by determining if the patient has met the expected treatment outcome. Planning refers to designing a plan of action that will help the nurse deliver quality patient care. Implementation refers to all of the nursing interventions directed toward solving the patient’s nursing problems. Analysis is the process of identifying the patient’s nursing problems.
Question 10
Which assessment finding indicates dehydration?
A
Neck vein distention
B
Rapid filling of hand veins
C
A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated
D
Tenting of chest skin when pinched
Question 10 Explanation:
Tenting of chest skin when pinched indicates decreased skin elasticity due to dehydration. Hand veins fill slowly with dehydration, not rapidly. A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated and neck vein distention indicate fluid overload, not dehydration.
Question 11
The nurse is reviewing the report of a patient’s routine urinalysis. Which of the following values should the nurse consider abnormal?
A
Absence of glucose
B
Urine pH of 3
C
Absence of protein
D
Specific gravity of 1.002
Question 11 Explanation:
Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3 is abnormal and may indicate such conditions as renal tuberculosis, pyrexia, phenylketonuria, alkaptonuria, and acidosis. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.032, making the patient’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals.
Question 12
The nurse is performing her admission assessment of a patient. When grading arterial pulses, a 1+ pulse indicates:
A
Diminished perfusion.
B
Above normal perfusion.
C
Absent perfusion.
D
Normal perfusion.
Question 12 Explanation:
A 1+ pulse indicates weak pulses and is associated with diminished perfusion. A 4+ is bounding perfusion, a 3+ is increased perfusion, a 2+ is normal perfusion, and 0 is absent perfusion.
Question 13
Which assessment finding would indicate an extracellular fluid volume deficit?
A
A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg
B
An orthostatic blood pressure change
C
Bradycardia
D
Pitting edema
Question 13 Explanation:
An orthostatic blood pressure indicates an extracellular fluid volume deficit. (The extracellular compartment consists of both the intravascular compartment and interstitial space.) A fluid volume deficit within the intravascular compartment would cause tachycardia, not bradycardia or orthostatic blood pressure change. A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is in the high normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Pitting edema indicates fluid volume overload.
Question 14
A patient is admitted to the hospital for a brain biopsy. The nurse knows that the most common type of primary brain tumor is:
A
Meningioma
B
Hemangioblastoma
C
Angioma
D
Glioma
Question 14 Explanation:
Gliomas account for approximately 45% of all brain tumors. Meningiomas are the second most common, with 15%. Angiomas and hemangioblastomas are types of cerebral vascular tumors that account for 3% of brain tumors.
Question 15
Dr. Bruce Owen, a chemist, sustained a chemical burn to one eye. Which intervention takes priority for a patient with a chemical burn of the eye?
A
Patch the affected eye and call the ophthalmologist.
B
Immediately instill a tropical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution.
C
Administer a cycloplegic agent to reduce ciliary spasm.
D
Administer antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection
Question 15 Explanation:
A chemical burn to the eye requires immediate instillation of a topical anesthetic followed by irrigation with copious amounts of saline solution. Irrigation should be done for 5 to 10 minutes, and then the pH of the eye should be checked. Irrigation should be continued until the pH of the eye is restored to neutral (pH 7.0): Double eversion of the eyelids should be performed to look for and remove ciliary spasm, and an antibiotic ointment can be administered to reduce the risk of infection. Then the eye should be patched. Parenteral narcotic analgesia is often required for pain relief. An ophthalmologist should also be consulted.
Question 16
After undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy, a patient is retuned to the room with continuous bladder irrigation in place. One day later, the patient reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?
A
Increase the I.V. flow rate
B
Notify the doctor immediately
C
Administer meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed
D
Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage
Question 16 Explanation:
Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should ensure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren’t the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic such as meperidine as prescribed. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worse the pain. Notifying the doctor isn’t necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the prescribed medication.
Question 17
Which of the following types of drugs might be given to control increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A
Barbiturates
B
Histamine receptor blockers
C
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D
Anticholinergics
Question 17 Explanation:
Barbiturates may be used to induce a coma in a patient with increased ICP. This decreases cortical activity and cerebral metabolism, reduces cerebral blood volume, decreases cerebral edema, and reduces the brain’s need for glucose and oxygen. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used to decrease ocular pressure or to decrease the serum pH in a patient with metabolic alkalosis. Anticholinergics have many uses including reducing GI spasms. Histamine receptor blockers are used to decrease stomach acidity.
Question 18
The nurse explains to the patient who has an abdominal perineal resection that an indwelling urinary catheter must be kept in place for several days afterward because:
A
It prevents urinary tract infection following surgery
B
It determines whether the surgery caused bladder trauma
C
It minimizes the risk of wound contamination by the urine
D
It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal wound
Question 18 Explanation:
An indwelling urinary catheter is kept in place several days after this surgery to prevent urine retention that could place pressure on the perineal wound. An indwelling urinary catheter may be a source of postoperative urinary tract infection. Urine won’t contaminate the wound. An indwelling urinary catheter won’t necessarily show bladder
Question 19
Immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture, the patient usually complains of:
A
Photophobia
B
Hemiparesis
C
Seizures
D
Explosive headache
Question 19 Explanation:
An explosive headache or “the worst headache I’ve ever had” is typically the first presenting symptom of a bleeding cerebral aneurysm. Photophobia, seizures, and hemiparesis may occur later.
Question 20
The nurse is assessing a patient and notes a Brudzinski’s sign and Kernig’s sign. These are two classic signs of which of the following disorders?
A
Meningitis
B
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
C
Parkinson’s disease
D
Seizure disorder
Question 20 Explanation:
A positive response to one or both tests indicates meningeal irritation that is present with meningitis. Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs don’t occur in CVA, seizure disorder, or Parkinson’s disease.
Question 21
Which pregnancy-related physiologic change would place the patient with a history of cardiac disease at the greatest risk of developing severe cardiac problems?
A
Increased plasma volume
B
Decreased cardiac output
C
Increased blood pressure
D
Decrease heart rate
Question 21 Explanation:
Pregnancy increase plasma volume and expands the uterine vascular bed, possibly increasing both the heart rate and cardiac output. These changes may cause cardiac stress, especially during the second trimester. Blood pressure during early pregnancy may decrease, but it gradually returns to prepregnancy levels.
Question 22
James King is admitted to the hospital with right-side-heart failure. When assessing him for jugular vein distention, the nurse should position him:
A
Lying on his side with the head of the bed flat.
B
Lying on his back with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
C
Flat on his back.
D
Sitting upright.
Question 22 Explanation:
Assessing jugular vein distention should be done when the patient is in semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees). If the patient lies flat, the veins will be more distended; if he sits upright, the veins will be flat.
Question 23
A patient with suspected renal insufficiency is scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic work-up. After the nurse explains the diagnostic tests, the patient asks which part of the kidney “does the work.” Which answer is correct?
A
The tubular system
B
Bowman’s capsule
C
The nephron
D
The glomerulus
Question 23 Explanation:
The nephron is the kidney’s functioning unit. The glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, and tubular system are components of the nephron.
Question 24
The nurse is interviewing a slightly overweight 43-year-old man with mild emphysema and borderline hypertension. He admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day. When developing a teaching plan, which of the following should receive highest priority to help decrease respiratory complications?
A
Weight reduction
B
Decreasing salt intake
C
Smoking cessation
D
Decreasing caffeine intake
Question 24 Explanation:
Smoking should receive highest priority when trying to reduce risk factors for with respiratory complications. Losing weight and decreasing salt and caffeine intake can help to decrease risk factors for hypertension.
Question 25
Which nursing action is appropriate to prevent infection when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling urinary catheter?
A
Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and obtain urine
B
Open the drainage bag and pour out some urine
C
Wear sterile gloves when obtaining urine
D
Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe and needle
Question 25 Explanation:
To obtain urine properly, the nurse should aspirate it from a port, using a sterile syringe after cleaning the port. Opening a closed urine drainage system increases the risk of urinary tract infection. Standard precautions specify the use of gloves during contract with body fluids; however, sterile gloves aren’t necessary.
Question 26
During a shock state, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system exerts which of the following effects on renal function?
A
Increased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
B
Increased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
C
Decreased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
D
Decreased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
Question 26 Explanation:
As a response to shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system alters renal function by decreasing urine output and increasing reabsorption of sodium and water. Reduced renal perfusion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an effort to conserve circulating volume.
Question 27
Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?
A
Isotonic
B
Hypotonic
C
Alkaline
D
Hypertonic
Question 27 Explanation:
A hypertonic solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma because the hypertonic solution has a greater osmotic pressure than the cells. A hypotonic solution has a lower osmotic pressure than that of the cells. It causes fluid to shift into the cells, possibly resulting in rupture. An isotonic solution, which has the same osmotic pressure as the cells, wouldn’t cause any shift. A solution’s alkalinity is related to the hydrogen ion concentration, not its osmotic effect.
Question 28
Many men who suffer spinal injuries continue to be sexually active. The teaching plan for a man with a spinal cord injury should include sexually concerns. Which of the following injuries would most likely prevent erection and ejaculation?
A
T4
B
C5
C
S4
D
C7
Question 28 Explanation:
Men with spinal cord injury should be taught that the higher the level of the lesion, the better their sexual function will be. The sacral region is the lowest area on the spinal column and injury to this area will cause more erectile dysfunction.
Question 29
Richard Barnes was diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. What response by the patient indicates that he understands the precautions necessary with this diagnosis?
A
“The nurse told me that my urine and stool are also sources of meningitis bacteria.”
B
“I’m so depressed because I can’t have any visitors for a week.”
C
“Thank goodness, I’ll only be in isolation for 24 hours.”
D
“The doctor is a good friend of mine and won’t keep me in isolation.”
Question 29 Explanation:
Patient with pneumococcal meningitis require respiratory isolation for the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated.
Question 30
Particles move from an area of greater osmelarity to one of lesser osmolarity through:
A
Filtration
B
Osmosis
C
Active transport
D
Diffusion
Question 30 Explanation:
Particles move from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity through diffusion. Active transport is the movement of particles though energy expenditure from other sources such as enzymes. Osmosis is the movement of a pure solvent through a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity until equalization occurs. The membrane is impermeable to the solute but permeable to the solvent. Filtration is the process by which fluid is forced through a membrane by a difference in pressure; small molecules pass through, but large ones don’t.
Question 31
A patient with metabolic acidosis has a preexisting problem with the kidneys. Which other organ helps regulate blood pH?
A
heart
B
Liver
C
Lungs
D
Pancreas
Question 31 Explanation:
The respiratory and renal systems act as compensatory mechanisms to counteract-base imbalances. The lungs alter the carbon dioxide levels in the blood by increasing or decreasing the rate and depth of respirations, thereby increasing or decreasing carbon dioxide elimination. The liver, pancreas, and heart play no part in compensating for acid-base imbalances.
Question 32
When assessing a patient for fluid and electrolyte balance, the nurse is aware that the organs most important in maintaining this balance are the:
A
Brain stem and heart.
B
Liver and gallbladder.
C
Pituitary gland and pancreas
D
Lungs and kidneys.
Question 32 Explanation:
The lungs and kidneys are the body’s regulators of homeostasis. The lungs are responsible for removing fluid and carbon dioxide; the kidneys maintain a balance of fluid and electrolytes. The other organs play secondary roles in maintaining homeostasis.
Question 33
Tiffany Black is diagnosed with type A hepatitis. What special precautions should the nurse take when caring for this patient?
A
Put on a mask and gown before entering the patient’s room.
B
Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan.
C
Use caution when bringing food to the patient.
D
Prevent the droplet spread of the organism
Question 33 Explanation:
The nurse should wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan because the type A hepatitis virus occurs in stools. It may also occur in blood, nasotracheal secretions, and urine. Type A hepatitis isn’t transmitted through the air by way of droplets. Special precautions aren’t needed when feeding the patient, but disposable utensils should be used.
Question 34
Which nursing intervention would most likely lead to a hypo-osmolar state?
A
Encouraging the patient with excessive perspiration to dink broth
B
Weighing the patient daily
C
Administering tap water enema until the return is clear
D
Performing nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution
Question 34 Explanation:
Administering a tap water enema until return is clear would most likely contribute to a hypo-osmolar state. Because tap water is hypotonic, it would be absorbed by the body, diluting the body fluid concentration and lowering osmolarity. Weighing the patient is the easiest, most accurate method to determine fluid changes. Therefore, it helps identify rather than contribute to fluid imbalance. Nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution wouldn’t cause a shift in fluid balance. Drinking broth wouldn’t contribute to a hypo-osmolar state because it doesn’t replace sodium and water lost through excessive perspiration.
Question 35
Which of the following is a cause of embolic brain injury?
A
Persistent hypertension
B
Atrial fibrillation
C
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D
Skull fracture
Question 35 Explanation:
An embolic injury, caused by a traveling clot, may result from atrial fibrillation. Blood may pool in the fibrillating atrium and be released to travel up the cerebral artery to the brain. Persistent hypertension may place the patient at risk for a thrombotic injury to the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage and skull fractures aren’t associated with emboli.
Question 36
When caring for a patient with esophageal varices, the nurse knows that bleeding in this disorder usually stems from:
A
Peptic ulcers
B
Portal hypertension
C
Esophageal perforation
D
Pulmonary hypertension
Question 36 Explanation:
Increased pressure within the portal veins causes them to bulge, leading to rupture and bleeding into the lower esophagus. Bleeding associated with esophageal varices doesn’t stem from esophageal perforation, pulmonary hypertension, or peptic ulcers.
Question 37
Cathy Bates, age 36, is a homemaker who frequently forgets to take her carbamazepine (Tegretol). As a result, she has been experiencing seizures. How can the nurse best help the patient remember to take her medication?
A
Explain that she should take her medication with breakfast.
B
Tell her take her medication at bedtime.
C
Instruct her to take her medication after one of her favorite television shows.
D
Tell her to buy an alarm watch to remind her.
Question 37 Explanation:
Tegretol should be taken with food to minimize GI distress. Taking it at meals will also establish a regular routine, which should help compliance.
Question 38
Gary Jordan suffered a cerebrovascular accident that left her unable to comprehend speech and unable to speak. This type of aphasia is known as:
A
Conduction aphasia
B
Global aphasia
C
Expressive aphasia
D
Receptive aphasia
Question 38 Explanation:
Global aphasia occurs when all language functions are affected. Receptive aphasia, also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, affects the ability to comprehend written or spoken words. Expressive aphasia, also known as Broca’s aphasia, affected the patient’s ability to form language and express thoughts. Conduction aphasia refers to abnormalities in speech repetition.
Question 39
Jessie James is diagnosed with retinal detachment. Which intervention is the most important for this patient?
A
Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed rest
B
Referring him to an ophthalmologist
C
Patching both of his eyes
D
Preparing him for surgery
Question 39 Explanation:
Immediate bed rest is necessary to prevent further injury. Both eyes should be patched to avoid consensual eye movement and the patient should receive early referral to an ophthalmologist should treat the condition immediately. Retinal reattachment can be accomplished by surgery only. If the macula is detached or threatened, surgery is urgent; prolonged detachment of the macula results in permanent loss of central vision.
Question 40
The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with cardiomyopathy is:
A
Ineffective individual coping related to fear of debilitating illness
B
Anxiety related to risk of declining health status
C
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility.
D
Fluid volume excess related to altered compensatory mechanisms.
Question 40 Explanation:
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility is the greatest threat to the survival of a patient with cardiomyopathy. The other options can be addressed once cardiac output and myocardial contractility have been restored.
Question 41
Although Ms. Priestly has a spinal cord injury, she can still have sexual intercourse. Discharge teaching should make her aware that:
A
She can no longer achieve orgasm.
B
Positioning may be awkward.
C
She must remove indwelling urinary catheter prior to intercourse.
D
She can still get pregnant.
Question 41 Explanation:
Women with spinal cord injuries who were sexually active may continue having sexual intercourse and must be reminded that they can still become pregnant. She may be fully capable of achieving orgasm. An indwelling urinary catheter may be left in place during sexual intercourse. Positioning will need to be adjusted to fit the patient’s needs.
Question 42
The nurse is teaching family members of a patient with a concussion about the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would she cite as an early sign of increased ICP?
A
Decreased systolic blood pressure
B
Headache and vomiting
C
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
D
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
Question 42 Explanation:
Headache and projectile vomiting are early signs of increased ICP. Decreased systolic blood pressure, unconsciousness, and dilated pupils that don’t reac to light are considered late signs.
Question 43
The first day after, surgery the nurse finds no measurable fecal drainage from a patient’s colostomy stoma. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A
Call the doctor immediately.
B
Continue the current plan of care.
C
Obtain an order to irrigate the stoma.
D
Place the patient on bed rest and call the doctor.
Question 43 Explanation:
The colostomy may not function for 2 days or more (48 to 72 hours) after surgery. Therefore, the normal plan of care can be followed. Since no fecal drainage is expected for 48 to 72 hours after a colostomy (only mucous and serosanguineous), the doctor doesn’t have to be notified and the stoma shouldn’t be irrigated at this time.
Question 44
Ivy Hopkins, age 25, suffered a cervical fracture requiring immobilization with halo traction. When caring for the patient in halo traction, the nurse must:
A
Remove the brace once a day to allow the patient to rest.
B
Remove the brace so that the patient can shower.
C
Encourage the patient to use a pillow under the ring.
D
Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest for quick removal if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary.
Question 44 Explanation:
The nurse must have a wrench taped on the vest at all times for quick halo removal in emergent situations. The brace isn’t to be removed for any other reason until the cervical fracture is healed. Placing a pillow under the patient’s head may alter the stability of the brace.
Question 45
In early symptom associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) includes:
A
Change in mental status
B
Fatigue while talking
C
Spontaneous fractures
D
Numbness of the hands and feet
Question 45 Explanation:
Early symptoms of ALS include fatigue while talking, dysphagia, and weakness of the hands and arms. ALS doesn’t cause a change in mental status, paresthesia, or fractures.
Question 46
Murmurs that indicate heart disease are often accompanied by other symptoms such as:
A
Subcutaneous emphysema
B
Periorbital edema
C
Thoracic petechiae
D
Dyspnea on exertion.
Question 46 Explanation:
A murmur that indicates heart disease is often accompanied by dyspnea on exertion, which is a hallmark of heart failure. Other indicators are tachycardia, syncope, and chest pain. Subcutaneous emphysema, thoracic petechiae, and perior-bital edema aren’t associated with murmurs and heart disease.
Question 47
Kelly Smith complains that her headaches are occurring more frequently despite medications. Patients with a history of headaches should be taught to avoid:
A
Freshly prepared meats.
B
Citrus fruits.
C
Skim milk
D
Chocolate
Question 47 Explanation:
Patients with a history of headaches, especially migraines, should be taught to keep a food diary to identify potential food triggers. Typical headache triggers include alcohol, aged cheeses, processed meats, and chocolate and caffeine-containing products.
Question 48
Gregg Lohan, age 75, is admitted to the medical-surgical floor with weakness and left-sided chest pain. The symptoms have been present for several weeks after a viral illness. Which assessment finding is most symptomatic of pericarditis?
A
Third heart sound (S3)
B
Pericardial friction rub
C
Bilateral crackles auscultated at the lung bases
D
Pain unrelieved by a change in position
Question 48 Explanation:
A pericardial friction rub may be present with the pericardial effusion of pericarditis. The lungs are typically clear when auscultated. Sitting up and leaning forward often relieves pericarditis pain. An S3 indicates left-sided heart failure and isn’t usually present with pericarditis.
Question 49
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The doctor tentatively diagnoses right ureter-olithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this patient’s care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A
Pain
B
Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
C
Risk of infection
D
Altered urinary elimination
Question 49 Explanation:
Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the patient can’t rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of pain takes highest priority. Risk for infection and altered urinary elimination are appropriate once the patient’s pain is controlled. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements isn’t appropriate at this time.
Question 50
If a patient’s GI tract is functioning but he’s unable to take foods by mouth, the preferred method of feeding is:
A
Oral liquid supplements
B
Total parenteral nutrition
C
Peripheral parenteral nutrition
D
Enteral nutrition
Question 50 Explanation:
If the patient’s GI tract is functioning, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube is the preferred method. Peripheral and total parenteral nutrition places the patient at risk for infection. If the patient is unable to consume foods by mouth, oral liquid supplements are contraindicated.
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1. The nurse is performing her admission assessment of a patient. When grading arterial pulses, a 1+ pulse indicates:
Above normal perfusion.
Absent perfusion.
Normal perfusion.
Diminished perfusion.
2. Murmurs that indicate heart disease are often accompanied by other symptoms such as:
Dyspnea on exertion.
Subcutaneous emphysema.
Thoracic petechiae.
Periorbital edema.
3. Which pregnancy-related physiologic change would place the patient with a history of cardiac disease at the greatest risk of developing severe cardiac problems?
Decrease heart rate
Decreased cardiac output
Increased plasma volume
Increased blood pressure
4. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with cardiomyopathy is:
Anxiety related to risk of declining health status.
Ineffective individual coping related to fear of debilitating illness
Fluid volume excess related to altered compensatory mechanisms.
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility.
5. A patient with thrombophlebitis reached her expected outcomes of care. Her affected leg appears pink and warm. Her pedal pulse is palpable and there is no edema present. Which step in the nursing process is described above?
Planning
Implementation
Analysis
Evaluation
6. An elderly patient may have sustained a basilar skull fracture after slipping and falling on an icy sidewalk. The nurse knows that basilar skull factures:
Are the least significant type of skull fracture.
May have cause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the nose or ears.
Have no characteristic findings.
Are always surgically repaired.
7. Which of the following types of drugs might be given to control increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Barbiturates
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Anticholinergics
Histamine receptor blockers
8. The nurse is teaching family members of a patient with a concussion about the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would she cite as an early sign of increased ICP?
Decreased systolic blood pressure
Headache and vomiting
Inability to wake the patient with noxious stimuli
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
9. Jessie James is diagnosed with retinal detachment. Which intervention is the most important for this patient?
Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed rest
Patching both of his eyes
Referring him to an ophthalmologist
Preparing him for surgery
10. Dr. Bruce Owen, a chemist, sustained a chemical burn to one eye. Which intervention takes priority for a patient with a chemical burn of the eye?
Patch the affected eye and call the ophthalmologist.
Administer a cycloplegic agent to reduce ciliary spasm.
Immediately instill a tropical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution.
Administer antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection
11. The nurse is assessing a patient and notes a Brudzinski’s sign and Kernig’s sign. These are two classic signs of which of the following disorders?
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
Meningitis
Seizure disorder
Parkinson’s disease
12. A patient is admitted to the hospital for a brain biopsy. The nurse knows that the most common type of primary brain tumor is:
Meningioma.
Angioma.
Hemangioblastoma.
Glioma.
13. The nurse should instruct the patient with Parkinson’s disease to avoid which of the following?
Walking in an indoor shopping mall
Sitting on the deck on a cool summer evening
Walking to the car on a cold winter day
Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer day
14. Gary Jordan suffered a cerebrovascular accident that left her unable to comprehend speech and unable to speak. This type of aphasia is known as:
Receptive aphasia
Expressive aphasia
Global aphasia
Conduction aphasia
15. Kelly Smith complains that her headaches are occurring more frequently despite medications. Patients with a history of headaches should be taught to avoid:
Freshly prepared meats.
Citrus fruits.
Skim milk
Chocolate
16. Immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture, the patient usually complains of:
Photophobia
Explosive headache
Seizures
Hemiparesis
17. Which of the following is a cause of embolic brain injury?
Persistent hypertension
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Atrial fibrillation
Skull fracture
18. Although Ms. Priestly has a spinal cord injury, she can still have sexual intercourse. Discharge teaching should make her aware that:
She must remove indwelling urinary catheter prior to intercourse.
She can no longer achieve orgasm.
Positioning may be awkward.
She can still get pregnant.
19.Ivy Hopkins, age 25, suffered a cervical fracture requiring immobilization with halo traction. When caring for the patient in halo traction, the nurse must:
Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest for quick removal if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary.
Remove the brace once a day to allow the patient to rest.
Encourage the patient to use a pillow under the ring.
Remove the brace so that the patient can shower.
20. The nurse asks a patient’s husband if he understands why his wife is receiving nimodipine (Nimotop), since she suffered a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which response by the husband indicates that he understands the drug’s use?
“Nimodipine replaces calcium.”
“Nimodipine promotes growth of blood vessels in the brain.”
“Nimodipine reduces the brain’s demand for oxygen.”
“Nimodipine reduces vasospasm in the brain.”
21. Many men who suffer spinal injuries continue to be sexually active. The teaching plan for a man with a spinal cord injury should include sexually concerns. Which of the following injuries would most likely prevent erection and ejaculation?
C5
C7
T4
S4
22. Cathy Bates, age 36, is a homemaker who frequently forgets to take her carbamazepine (Tegretol). As a result, she has been experiencing seizures. How can the nurse best help the patient remember to take her medication?
Tell her take her medication at bedtime.
Instruct her to take her medication after one of her favorite television shows.
Explain that she should take her medication with breakfast.
Tell her to buy an alarm watch to remind her.
23. Richard Barnes was diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. What response by the patient indicates that he understands the precautions necessary with this diagnosis?
“I’m so depressed because I can’t have any visitors for a week.”
“Thank goodness, I’ll only be in isolation for 24 hours.”
“The nurse told me that my urine and stool are also sources of meningitis bacteria.”
“The doctor is a good friend of mine and won’t keep me in isolation.”
24. An early symptom associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) includes:
Fatigue while talking
Change in mental status
Numbness of the hands and feet
Spontaneous fractures
25. When caring for a patient with esophageal varices, the nurse knows that bleeding in this disorder usually stems from:
Esophageal perforation
Pulmonary hypertension
Portal hypertension
Peptic ulcers
26. Tiffany Black is diagnosed with type A hepatitis. What special precautions should the nurse take when caring for this patient?
Put on a mask and gown before entering the patient’s room.
Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan.
Prevent the droplet spread of the organism.
Use caution when bringing food to the patient.
27. Discharge instructions for a patient who has been operated on for colorectal cancer include irrigating the colostomy. The nurse knows her teaching is effective when the patient states he’ll contact the doctor if:
He experiences abdominal cramping while the irrigant is infusing
He has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma
He expels flatus while the return is running out
He’s unable to complete the procedure in 1 hour
28. The nurse explains to the patient who has an abdominal perineal resection that an indwelling urinary catheter must be kept in place for several days afterward because:
It prevents urinary tract infection following surgery
It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal wound
It minimizes the risk of wound contamination by the urine
It determines whether the surgery caused bladder trauma
29. The first day after, surgery the nurse finds no measurable fecal drainage from a patient’s colostomy stoma. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Call the doctor immediately.
Obtain an order to irrigate the stoma.
Place the patient on bed rest and call the doctor.
Continue the current plan of care.
30. If a patient’s GI tract is functioning but he’s unable to take foods by mouth, the preferred method of feeding is:
Total parenteral nutrition
Peripheral parenteral nutrition
Enteral nutrition
Oral liquid supplements
31. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Alkaline
32. Particles move from an area of greater osmelarity to one of lesser osmolarity through:
Active transport
Osmosis
Diffusion
Filtration
33. Which assessment finding indicates dehydration?
Tenting of chest skin when pinched
Rapid filling of hand veins
A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated
Neck vein distention
34. Which nursing intervention would most likely lead to a hypo-osmolar state?
Performing nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution
Weighing the patient daily
Administering tap water enema until the return is clear
Encouraging the patient with excessive perspiration to dink broth
35. Which assessment finding would indicate an extracellular fluid volume deficit?
Bradycardia
A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg
Pitting edema
An orthostatic blood pressure change
36. A patient with metabolic acidosis has a preexisting problem with the kidneys. Which other organ helps regulate blood pH?
Liver
Pancreas
Lungs
heart
37. The nurse considers the patient anuric if the patient;
Voids during the nighttime hours
Has a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours
Has a urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours
Has pain and burning on urination
38. Which nursing action is appropriate to prevent infection when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling urinary catheter?
Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe and needle
Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and obtain urine
Open the drainage bag and pour out some urine
Wear sterile gloves when obtaining urine
39. After undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy, a patient is retuned to the room with continuous bladder irrigation in place. One day later, the patient reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?
Increase the I.V. flow rate
Notify the doctor immediately
Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage
Administer meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed
40. A patient comes to the hospital complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain originating in the lumbar region and radiating around the side and toward the bladder. The patient also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The doctor tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?
Kidney
Ureter
Bladder
Urethra
41. A patient comes to the hospital complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The doctor tentatively diagnoses right ureter-olithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this patient’s care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
Pain
Risk of infection
Altered urinary elimination
Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
42. The nurse is reviewing the report of a patient’s routine urinalysis. Which of the following values should the nurse consider abnormal?
Specific gravity of 1.002
Urine pH of 3
Absence of protein
Absence of glucose
43. A patient with suspected renal insufficiency is scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic work-up. After the nurse explains the diagnostic tests, the patient asks which part of the kidney “does the work.” Which answer is correct?
The glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule
The nephron
The tubular system
44. During a shock state, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system exerts which of the following effects on renal function?
Decreased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
Decreased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
Increased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
Increased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
45. While assessing a patient who complained of lower abdominal pressure, the nurse notes a firm mass extending above the symphysis pubis. The nurse suspects:
A urinary tract infection
Renal calculi
An enlarged kidney
A distended bladder
46. Gregg Lohan, age 75, is admitted to the medical-surgical floor with weakness and left-sided chest pain. The symptoms have been present for several weeks after a viral illness. Which assessment finding is most symptomatic of pericarditis?
Pericardial friction rub
Bilateral crackles auscultated at the lung bases
Pain unrelieved by a change in position
Third heart sound (S3)
47. James King is admitted to the hospital with right-side-heart failure. When assessing him for jugular vein distention, the nurse should position him:
Lying on his side with the head of the bed flat.
Sitting upright.
Flat on his back.
Lying on his back with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
48. The nurse is interviewing a slightly overweight 43-year-old man with mild emphysema and borderline hypertension. He admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day. When developing a teaching plan, which of the following should receive highest priority to help decrease respiratory complications?
Weight reduction
Decreasing salt intake
Smoking cessation
Decreasing caffeine intake
49. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
15:1
15:2
12:1
12:2
50. When assessing a patient for fluid and electrolyte balance, the nurse is aware that the organs most important in maintaining this balance are the:
Pituitary gland and pancreas
Liver and gallbladder.
Brain stem and heart.
Lungs and kidneys.
Answers and Rationales
Answer: D. A 1+ pulse indicates weak pulses and is associated with diminished perfusion. A 4+ is bounding perfusion, a 3+ is increased perfusion, a 2+ is normal perfusion, and 0 is absent perfusion.
Answer: A.A murmur that indicates heart disease is often accompanied by dyspnea on exertion, which is a hallmark of heart failure. Other indicators are tachycardia, syncope, and chest pain. Subcutaneous emphysema, thoracic petechiae, and perior-bital edema aren’t associated with murmurs and heart disease.
Answer: C.Pregnancy increase plasma volume and expands the uterine vascular bed, possibly increasing both the heart rate and cardiac output. These changes may cause cardiac stress, especially during the second trimester. Blood pressure during early pregnancy may decrease, but it gradually returns to prepregnancy levels.
Answer: D.Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility is the greatest threat to the survival of a patient with cardiomyopathy. The other options can be addressed once cardiac output and myocardial contractility have been restored.
Answer: D.Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the treatment plan by determining if the patient has met the expected treatment outcome. Planning refers to designing a plan of action that will help the nurse deliver quality patient care. Implementation refers to all of the nursing interventions directed toward solving the patient’s nursing problems. Analysis is the process of identifying the patient’s nursing problems.
Answer: B.A basilar skull fracture carries the risk of complications of dural tear, causing CSF leakage and damage to cranial nerves I, II, VII, and VIII. Classic findings in this type of fracture may include otorrhea, rhinorrhea, Battle’s signs, and raccoon eyes. Surgical treatment isn’t always required.
Answer: A. Barbiturates may be used to induce a coma in a patient with increased ICP. This decreases cortical activity and cerebral metabolism, reduces cerebral blood volume, decreases cerebral edema, and reduces the brain’s need for glucose and oxygen. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used to decrease ocular pressure or to decrease the serum pH in a patient with metabolic alkalosis. Anticholinergics have many uses including reducing GI spasms. Histamine receptor blockers are used to decrease stomach acidity.
Answer: B. Headache and projectile vomiting are early signs of increased ICP. Decreased systolic blood pressure, unconsciousness, and dilated pupils that don’t reac to light are considered late signs.
Answer: A. Immediate bed rest is necessary to prevent further injury. Both eyes should be patched to avoid consensual eye movement and the patient should receive early referral to an ophthalmologist should treat the condition immediately. Retinal reattachment can be accomplished by surgery only. If the macula is detached or threatened, surgery is urgent; prolonged detachment of the macula results in permanent loss of central vision.
Answer: C. A chemical burn to the eye requires immediate instillation of a topical anesthetic followed by irrigation with copious amounts of saline solution. Irrigation should be done for 5 to 10 minutes, and then the pH of the eye should be checked. Irrigation should be continued until the pH of the eye is restored to neutral (pH 7.0): Double eversion of the eyelids should be performed to look for and remove ciliary spasm, and an antibiotic ointment can be administered to reduce the risk of infection. Then the eye should be patched. Parenteral narcotic analgesia is often required for pain relief. An ophthalmologist should also be consulted.
Answer: B. A positive response to one or both tests indicates meningeal irritation that is present with meningitis. Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs don’t occur in CVA, seizure disorder, or Parkinson’s disease.
Answer: D. Gliomas account for approximately 45% of all brain tumors. Meningiomas are the second most common, with 15%. Angiomas and hemangioblastomas are types of cerebral vascular tumors that account for 3% of brain tumors.
Answer: D. The patient with Parkinson’s disease may be hypersensitive to heat, which increases the risk of hyperthermia, and he should be instructed to avoid sun exposure during hot weather.
Answer: C. Global aphasia occurs when all language functions are affected. Receptive aphasia, also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, affects the ability to comprehend written or spoken words. Expressive aphasia, also known as Broca’s aphasia, affected the patient’s ability to form language and express thoughts. Conduction aphasia refers to abnormalities in speech repetition.
Answer: D. Patients with a history of headaches, especially migraines, should be taught to keep a food diary to identify potential food triggers. Typical headache triggers include alcohol, aged cheeses, processed meats, and chocolate and caffeine-containing products.
Answer: B. An explosive headache or “the worst headache I’ve ever had” is typically the first presenting symptom of a bleeding cerebral aneurysm. Photophobia, seizures, and hemiparesis may occur later.
Answer: C. An embolic injury, caused by a traveling clot, may result from atrial fibrillation. Blood may pool in the fibrillating atrium and be released to travel up the cerebral artery to the brain. Persistent hypertension may place the patient at risk for a thrombotic injury to the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage and skull fractures aren’t associated with emboli.
Answer: D. Women with spinal cord injuries who were sexually active may continue having sexual intercourse and must be reminded that they can still become pregnant. She may be fully capable of achieving orgasm. An indwelling urinary catheter may be left in place during sexual intercourse. Positioning will need to be adjusted to fit the patient’s needs.
Answer: A. The nurse must have a wrench taped on the vest at all times for quick halo removal in emergent situations. The brace isn’t to be removed for any other reason until the cervical fracture is healed. Placing a pillow under the patient’s head may alter the stability of the brace.
Answer: D. Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that acts on cerebral blood vessels to reduce vasospasm. The drug doesn’t increase the amount of calcium, affect cerebral vasculature growth, or reduce cerebral oxygen demand.
Answer: D. Men with spinal cord injury should be taught that the higher the level of the lesion, the better their sexual function will be. The sacral region is the lowest area on the spinal column and injury to this area will cause more erectile dysfunction.
Answer: C. Tegretol should be taken with food to minimize GI distress. Taking it at meals will also establish a regular routine, which should help compliance.
Answer: B. Patient with pneumococcal meningitis require respiratory isolation for the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated.
Answer: A. Early symptoms of ALS include fatigue while talking, dysphagia, and weakness of the hands and arms. ALS doesn’t cause a change in mental status, paresthesia, or fractures.
Answer: C. Increased pressure within the portal veins causes them to bulge, leading to rupture and bleeding into the lower esophagus. Bleeding associated with esophageal varices doesn’t stem from esophageal perforation, pulmonary hypertension, or peptic ulcers.
Answer: B. The nurse should wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan because the type A hepatitis virus occurs in stools. It may also occur in blood, nasotracheal secretions, and urine. Type A hepatitis isn’t transmitted through the air by way of droplets. Special precautions aren’t needed when feeding the patient, but disposable utensils should be used.
Answer: B. The patient should notify the doctor if he has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma. Difficulty with insertion may indicate stenosis of the bowel. Abdominal cramping and expulsion of flatus may normally occur with irrigation. The procedure will often take an hour to complete.
Answer: B. An indwelling urinary catheter is kept in place several days after this surgery to prevent urine retention that could place pressure on the perineal wound. An indwelling urinary catheter may be a source of postoperative urinary tract infection. Urine won’t contaminate the wound. An indwelling urinary catheter won’t necessarily show bladder trauma.
Answer: D. The colostomy may not function for 2 days or more (48 to 72 hours) after surgery. Therefore, the normal plan of care can be followed. Since no fecal drainage is expected for 48 to 72 hours after a colostomy (only mucous and serosanguineous), the doctor doesn’t have to be notified and the stoma shouldn’t be irrigated at this time.
Answer: C. If the patient’s GI tract is functioning, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube is the preferred method. Peripheral and total parenteral nutrition places the patient at risk for infection. If the patient is unable to consume foods by mouth, oral liquid supplements are contraindicated.
Answer: A. A hypertonic solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma because the hypertonic solution has a greater osmotic pressure than the cells. A hypotonic solution has a lower osmotic pressure than that of the cells. It causes fluid to shift into the cells, possibly resulting in rupture. An isotonic solution, which has the same osmotic pressure as the cells, wouldn’t cause any shift. A solution’s alkalinity is related to the hydrogen ion concentration, not its osmotic effect.
Answer: C. Particles move from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity through diffusion. Active transport is the movement of particles though energy expenditure from other sources such as enzymes. Osmosis is the movement of a pure solvent through a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity until equalization occurs. The membrane is impermeable to the solute but permeable to the solvent. Filtration is the process by which fluid is forced through a membrane by a difference in pressure; small molecules pass through, but large ones don’t.
Answer: A. Tenting of chest skin when pinched indicates decreased skin elasticity due to dehydration. Hand veins fill slowly with dehydration, not rapidly. A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated and neck vein distention indicate fluid overload, not dehydration.
Answer: C. Administering a tap water enema until return is clear would most likely contribute to a hypo-osmolar state. Because tap water is hypotonic, it would be absorbed by the body, diluting the body fluid concentration and lowering osmolarity. Weighing the patient is the easiest, most accurate method to determine fluid changes. Therefore, it helps identify rather than contribute to fluid imbalance. Nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution wouldn’t cause a shift in fluid balance. Drinking broth wouldn’t contribute to a hypo-osmolar state because it doesn’t replace sodium and water lost through excessive perspiration.
Answer: D. An orthostatic blood pressure indicates an extracellular fluid volume deficit. (The extracellular compartment consists of both the intravascular compartment and interstitial space.) A fluid volume deficit within the intravascular compartment would cause tachycardia, not bradycardia or orthostatic blood pressure change. A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is in the high normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Pitting edema indicates fluid volume overload.
Answer: C. The respiratory and renal systems act as compensatory mechanisms to counteract-base imbalances. The lungs alter the carbon dioxide levels in the blood by increasing or decreasing the rate and depth of respirations, thereby increasing or decreasing carbon dioxide elimination. The liver, pancreas, and heart play no part in compensating for acid-base imbalances.
Answer: B. Anuria refers to a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours. The baseline for urine output and renal function is 30 ml of urine per hour. A urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours is within normal limits. Voiding at night is called nocturia. Pain and burning on urination is called dysuria.
Answer: A. To obtain urine properly, the nurse should aspirate it from a port, using a sterile syringe after cleaning the port. Opening a closed urine drainage system increases the risk of urinary tract infection. Standard precautions specify the use of gloves during contract with body fluids; however, sterile gloves aren’t necessary.
Answer: C. Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should ensure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren’t the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic such as meperidine as prescribed. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worse the pain. Notifying the doctor isn’t necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the prescribed medication.
Answer: A. Renal calculi most commonly from in the kidney. They may remain there or become lodged anywhere along the urinary tract. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.
Answer: A. Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the patient can’t rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of pain takes highest priority. Risk for infection and altered urinary elimination are appropriate once the patient’s pain is controlled. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements isn’t appropriate at this time.
Answer: B. Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3 is abnormal and may indicate such conditions as renal tuberculosis, pyrexia, phenylketonuria, alkaptonuria, and acidosis. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.032, making the patient’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals.
Answer: C. The nephron is the kidney’s functioning unit. The glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, and tubular system are components of the nephron.
Answer: A. As a response to shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system alters renal function by decreasing urine output and increasing reabsorption of sodium and water. Reduced renal perfusion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an effort to conserve circulating volume.
Answer: D. The bladder isn’t usually palpable unless it is distended. The feeling of pressure is usually relieved with urination. Reduced bladder tone due to general anesthesia is a common postoperative complication that causes difficulty in voiding. A urinary tract infection and renal calculi aren’t palpable. The kidneys aren’t palpable above the symphysis pubis.
Answer: A. A pericardial friction rub may be present with the pericardial effusion of pericarditis. The lungs are typically clear when auscultated. Sitting up and leaning forward often relieves pericarditis pain. An S3 indicates left-sided heart failure and isn’t usually present with pericarditis.
Answer: D. Assessing jugular vein distention should be done when the patient is in semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees). If the patient lies flat, the veins will be more distended; if he sits upright, the veins will be flat.
Answer: C. Smoking should receive highest priority when trying to reduce risk factors for with respiratory complications. Losing weight and decreasing salt and caffeine intake can help to decrease risk factors for hypertension.
Answer: B. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs CPR is 15:2
Answer: D. The lungs and kidneys are the body’s regulators of homeostasis. The lungs are responsible for removing fluid and carbon dioxide; the kidneys maintain a balance of fluid and electrolytes. The other organs play secondary roles in maintaining homeostasis.