July PNLE Pre-board Preparation Exam 2011- Answer and Rationale

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1. Answer: (B) A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.
Rationale: Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided.

2. Answer: (C) Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.
Rationale: Restraints encircle the limbs, which place the client at risk for circulation being restricted to the distal areas of the extremities. Checking the client’s circulation every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to adjust the restraints before injury from decreased blood flow occurs.

3. Answer: (A) Prevent stress ulcer
Rationale: Curling’s ulcer occurs as a generalized stress response in burn patients. This results in a decreased production of mucus and increased secretion of gastric acid. The best treatment for this prophylactic use of antacids and H2 receptor blockers.

4. Answer: (D) Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output
Rationale: Normal urine output for an adult is approximately 1 ml/minute (60 ml/hour). Therefore, this client's output is normal. Beyond continued evaluation, no nursing action is warranted.

5. Answer: (A) “My ankle looks less swollen now”
Rationale: Ice application decreases pain and swelling. Continued or increased pain, redness, and increased warmth are signs of inflammation that shouldn't occur after ice application

6. Answer: (C) Hypokalemia
Rationale: A loop diuretic removes water and, along with it, sodium and potassium. This may result in hypokalemia, hypovolemia, and hyponatremia.

7. Answer:(A) Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates
Rationale: Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers.

8. Answer: (A) Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services.
Rationale: Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the care of the patients.

9. Answer: (B) Standard written order
Rationale: This is a standard written order. Prescribers write a single order for medications given only once. A stat order is written for
medications given immediately for an urgent client problem. A standing order, also known as a protocol, establishes guidelines for treating a
particular disease or set of symptoms in special care areas such as the coronary care unit. Facilities also may institute medication protocols that specifically designate drugs that a nurse may not give.

10. Answer: (D) Liquid or semi-liquid stools
Rationale: Passage of liquid or semi-liquid stools results from seepage of unformed bowel contents around the impacted stool in the rectum. Clients
with fecal impaction don't pass hard, brown, formed stools because the feces can't move past the impaction. These clients typically report the urge
to defecate (although they can't pass stool) and a decreased appetite.

11. Answer: (C) Pulling the helix up and back
Rationale: To perform an otoscopic examination on an adult, the nurse grasps the helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to straighten the ear canal. For a child, the nurse grasps the helix and pulls it down to straighten the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any direction wouldn't straighten the ear canal for visualization.

12. Answer: (A) Excessive fetal activity.
Rationale: The most common signs and symptoms of hydatidiform mole includes elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin, vaginal bleeding, larger than normal uterus for gestational age, failure to detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive instruments, excessive nausea and vomiting, and early development of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Fetal activity would not be noted.

13. Answer: (B) Absent patellar reflexes
Rationale: Absence of patellar reflexes is an indicator of hypermagnesemia, which requires administration of calcium gluconate.

14. Answer: (C) Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
Rationale: Fetus at station plus two indicates that the presenting part is 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.

15. Answer: (A) Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
Rationale: Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds, is indicative of hyperstimulation of the uterus, which could result in injury to the mother and the fetus if Pitocin is not discontinued.

16. Answer: (C) EKG tracings
Rationale: A potential side effect of calcium gluconate administration is cardiac arrest. Continuous monitoring of cardiac activity (EKG) throught administration of calcium gluconate is an essential part of care.

17. Answer: (D) First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.
Rationale: This type of client has no obstetrical indication for a caesarean section as she did with her first caesarean delivery.

18. Answer: (A) Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
Rationale: When dealing with a crying toddler, the best approach is to talk to the mother and ignore the toddler first. This approach helps the toddler get used to the nurse before she attempts any procedures. It also gives the toddler an opportunity to see that the mother trusts the nurse.

19. Answer: (D) Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.
Rationale: Soft restraints from the upper arm to the wrist prevent the infant from touching her lip but allow him to hold a favorite item such as a blanket. Because they could damage the operative site, such as objects as pacifiers, suction catheters, and small spoons shouldn’t be placed in a baby’s mouth after cleft repair. A baby in a prone position may rub her face on the sheets and traumatize the operative site. The suture line should be cleaned gently to prevent infection, which could interfere with healing and damage the cosmetic appearance of the repair.

20. Answer: (B) Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
Rationale: Because feeding requires so much energy, an infant with heart failure should rest before feeding.

21. Answer: (C) Iron-rich formula only.
Rationale: The infants at age 5 months should receive iron-rich formula and that they shouldn’t receive solid food, even baby food until age 6 months.

22. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time.
Rationale: Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the client’s phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room number to the operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure.

23. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals.
Rationale: Food and drug therapy will prevent the accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and buffer the acid that does accumulate.

24. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered.
Rationale: The effects of heparin are monitored by the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is 1.5 to 2 times the normal level.

25. Answer: (B) In the operating room.
Rationale: The stoma drainage bag is applied in the operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of the skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these enzymes even for a short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated.

26. Answer: (B) Flat on back.
Rationale: To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache that can last for several days, the client is kept in flat in a supine position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are believed to be causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the puncture site. By keeping the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons.

27. Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately.
Rationale: This finding suggest that the level of consciousness is decreasing.

28. Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration
Rationale: Fever, chills, hemortysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered lentil status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.

29. Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
Rationale: Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isn’t usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren’t usual TB symptoms.

30. Answer:(A) Acute asthma
Rationale: Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and he’s too young to have developed (COPD) and emphysema.

31. Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest
Rationale: Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities. It’s unlikely the client will have asthma attack or a seizure or wake up on his own.

32. Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity
Rationale: Reduction in vital capacity is a normal physiologic changes include decreased elastic recoil of the lungs, fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in residual volume.

33. Answer: (C) Leukopenia
Rationale: Leukopenia, a reduction in WBCs, is a systemic effect of chemotherapy as a result of myelosuppression.

34. Answer: (C) Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.
Rationale: Foods that bothered a person preoperatively will continue to do so after a colostomy.

35. Answer: (B) Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.”
Rationale: This height permits the solution to flow slowly with little force so that excessive peristalsis is not immediately precipitated.

36. Answer: (A) Administer Kayexalate
Rationale: Kayexalate,a potassium exchange resin, permits sodium to be exchanged for potassium in the intestine, reducing the serum potassium level.

37. Answer:(B) 28 gtt/min
Rationale: This is the correct flow rate; multiply the amount to be infused (2000 ml) by the drop factor (10) and divide the result by the amount of time in minutes (12 hours x 60 minutes)

38. Answer: (D) Upper trunk
Rationale: The percentage designated for each burned part of the body using the rule of nines: Head and neck 9%; Right upper extremity 9%; Left upper extremity 9%; Anterior trunk 18%; Posterior trunk 18%; Right lower extremity 18%; Left lower extremity 18%; Perineum 1%.

39. Answer: (C) Bleeding from ears
Rationale: The nurse needs to perform a thorough assessment that could indicate alterations in cerebral function, increased intracranial pressures, fractures and bleeding. Bleeding from the ears occurs only with basal skull fractures that can easily contribute to increased intracranial pressure and brain herniation.

40. Answer: (D) may engage in contact sports
Rationale: The client should be advised by the nurse to avoid contact sports. This will prevent trauma to the area of the pacemaker generator.

41. Answer: (A) Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.
Rationale: COPD causes a chronic CO2 retention that renders the medulla insensitive to the CO2 stimulation for breathing. The hypoxic state of the client then becomes the stimulus for breathing. Giving the client oxygen in low concentrations will maintain the client’s hypoxic drive.

42. Answer: (B) Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.
Rationale: Since only a partial pneumonectomy is done, there is a need to promote expansion of this remaining Left lung by positioning the client on the opposite unoperated side.

43. Answer: (A) Perceptual disorders.
Rationale: Frightening visual hallucinations are especially common in clients experiencing alcohol withdrawal.

44. Answer: (D) Suggest that it takes awhile before seeing the results.
Rationale: The client needs a specific response; that it takes 2 to 3 weeks (a delayed effect) until the therapeutic blood level is reached.

45. Answer: (C) Superego
Rationale: This behavior shows a weak sense of moral consciousness. According to Freudian theory, personality disorders stem from a weak superego.

46. Answer: (C) Skeletal muscle paralysis.
Rationale: Anectine is a depolarizing muscle relaxant causing paralysis. It is used to reduce the intensity of muscle contractions during the convulsive stage, thereby reducing the risk of bone fractures or dislocation.

47. Answer: (D) Increase calories, carbohydrates, and protein.
Rationale: This client increased protein for tissue building and increased calories to replace what is burned up (usually via carbohydrates).

48. Answer: (C) Acting overly solicitous toward the child.
Rationale: This behavior is an example of reaction formation, a coping mechanism.

49. Answer: (A) By designating times during which the client can focus on the behavior.
Rationale: The nurse should designate times during which the client can focus on the compulsive behavior or obsessive thoughts. The nurse should urge the client to reduce the frequency of the compulsive behavior gradually, not rapidly. She shouldn't call attention to or try to prevent the behavior. Trying to prevent the behavior may cause pain and terror in the client. The nurse should encourage the client to verbalize anxieties to help distract attention from the compulsive behavior.

50. Answer: (D) Exploring the meaning of the traumatic event with the client.
Rationale: The client with PTSD needs encouragement to examine and understand the meaning of the traumatic event and consequent losses. Otherwise, symptoms may worsen and the client may become depressed or engage in self-destructive behavior such as substance abuse. The client must explore the meaning of the event and won't heal without this, no matter how much time passes. Behavioral techniques, such as relaxation therapy, may help decrease the client's anxiety and induce sleep. The physician may prescribe antianxiety agents or antidepressants cautiously to avoid dependence; sleep medication is rarely appropriate. A special diet isn't indicated unless the client also has an eating disorder or a nutritional problem.

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